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Paper f3 accountant accounting international

Financial Accounting
(International)

Time allowed: 2 hours
ALL FIFTY questions are compulsory and MUST be attempted.

Do NOT open this paper until instructed by the supervisor.
This question paper must not be removed from the examination hall.

The Association of Chartered Certified Accountants

Paper F3 (INT)

Fundamentals Pilot Paper – Knowledge module


ALL 50 questions are compulsory and MUST be attempted
Please use the Candidate Registration Sheet provided to indicate your chosen answer to each multiple choice question.

1


Should details of material adjusting or material non-adjusting events after the balance sheet date be disclosed in
the notes to financial statements according to IAS 10 Events After the Balance Sheet Date?



A

Adjusting events


B Non-Adjusting events


(1 mark)

2

At 30 June 2005 a company’s allowance for receivables was $39,000. At 30 June 2006 trade receivables totalled
$517,000. It was decided to write off debts totalling $37,000 and to adjust the allowance for receivables to the
equivalent of 5 per cent of the trade receivables based on past events.



What figure should appear in the income statement for the year ended 30 June 2006 for these items?





A

$61,000

B

$22,000



C

$24,000


D $23,850


(2 marks)

3

In times of rising prices, what effect does the use of the historical cost concept have on a company’s asset values
and profit?



A

Asset values and profit both understated



B

Asset values and profit both overstated



C

Asset values understated and profit overstated


D Asset values overstated and profit understated.


(2 marks)

4

The IASB’s Framework for the preparation and presentation of financial statements gives qualitative characteristics
that make financial information reliable.



Which of the following are examples of those qualitative characteristics?



A

Faithful Representation, neutrality and prudence



B

Neutrality, comparability and true and fair view



C

Prudence, comparability and accruals


D Neutrality, accruals and going concern


(2 marks)




5

The following bank reconciliation statement has been prepared by a trainee accountant:



Overdraft per bank statement

less: Outstanding cheques



add: Deposits credited after date


Cash at bank as calculated above


$
3,860
9,160
5,300
16,690
21,990



What should be the correct balance per the cash book?



A

$21,990 balance at bank as stated



B

$3,670 balance at bank



C

$11,390 balance at bank


D $3,670 overdrawn.


(2 marks)

6

Which of the following calculates a trader’s net profit for a period?



A

Closing net assets + drawings – capital introduced – opening net assets



B

Closing net assets – drawings + capital introduced – opening net assets



C

Closing net assets – drawings – capital introduced – opening net assets


D Closing net assets + drawings + capital introduced – opening net assets.


7

(2 marks)

A sole trader took some goods costing $800 from inventory for his own use. The normal selling price of the goods is
$1,600.


Which of the following journal entries would correctly record this?

Dr
Cr

$

$

A Drawings account
800

Inventory account
800

B


Drawings account
Purchases account


C Sales account

Drawings account




800


800

1,600


1,600
(1 mark)

8

The debit side of a company’s trial balance totals $800 more than the credit side.



Which one of the following errors would fully account for the difference?
A

$400 paid for plant maintenance has been correctly entered in the cash book and credited to the plant asset
account.

B

Discount received $400 has been debited to discount allowed account

C

A receipt of $800 for commission receivable has been omitted from the records

D The petty cash balance of $800 has been omitted from the trial balance.




(2 marks)


9

A company’s income statement for the year ended 31 December 2005 showed a net profit of $83,600. It was later
found that $18,000 paid for the purchase of a motor van had been debited to the motor expenses account. It is the
company’s policy to depreciate motor vans at 25 per cent per year on the straight line basis, with a full year’s charge
in the year of acquisition.



What would the net profit be after adjusting for this error?



A

$106,100



B

$70,100



C

$97,100


D $101,600


(2 marks)

10 Should dividends paid appear on the face of a company’s income statement?


A

Yes


B No


(1 mark)

11 The following control account has been prepared by a trainee accountant:

Receivables ledger control account


$


Opening balance

308,600 Cash received from credit customers

Credit sales

154,200 Discounts allowed to credit customers

Cash sales

88,100 Interest charged on overdue accounts

Contras against credit balances in payables ledger 4,600 Bad debts written off
Allowance for receivables
Closing balance



555,500



$
147,200
1,400
2,400
4,900
2,800
396,800
555,500



What should the closing balance be when all the errors made in preparing the receivables ledger control account
have been corrected?



A

$395,200



B

$304,300



C

$309,500


D $307,100


(2 marks)




12 At 31 December 2004 Q, a limited liability company, owned a building that cost $800,000 on 1 January 1995. It
was being depreciated at two per cent per year.


On 1 January 2005 a revaluation to $1,000,000 was recognised. At this date the building had a remaining useful life
of 40 years.



What is the depreciation charge for the year ended 31 December 2005 and the revaluation reserve balance as at
1 January 2005?


Depreciation charge


for year ended 31 December 2005

$

A
25,000

Revaluation reserve
as at 1 January 2005
$
200,000



B

25,000



360,000



C

20,000



200,000

20,000



360,000


D


(2 marks)

13 P and Q are in partnership, sharing profits equally.


On 30 June 2005, R joined the partnership and it was agreed that from that date all three partners should share
equally in the profit.



In the year ended 31 December 2005 the profit amounted to $300,000, accruing evenly over the year, after charging
a bad debt of $30,000 which it was agreed should be borne equally by P and Q only.





What should P’s total profit share be for the year ended 31 December 2005?
A $ 95,000



B $122,500



C $125,000


D $110,000


(2 marks)

14 A company has made a material change to an accounting policy in preparing its current financial statements.


Which of the following disclosures are required by IAS 8 Accounting policies, changes in accounting estimates and
errors in the financial statements?





1
2
3

The reasons for the change.
The amount of the adjustment in the current period and in comparative information for prior periods.
An estimate of the effect of the change on the next five accounting periods.



A

1 and 2 only



B

1 and 3 only



C

2 and 3 only


D 1, 2 and 3


(2 marks)




15 According to IAS 2 Inventories, which of the following costs should be included in valuing the inventories of a
manufacturing company?


(1) Carriage inwards



(2) Carriage outwards



(3) Depreciation of factory plant



(4) General administrative overheads



A

All four items



B

1, 2 and 4 only



C

2 and 3 only


D 1 and 3 only


(2 marks)

16 Part of a company’s cash flow statement is shown below:


Operating profit


Depreciation charges


Increase in inventory

Increase in accounts payable



$’000
8,640
(2,160)
(330)
440



The following criticisms of the extract have been made:



(1) Depreciation charges should have been added, not deducted.



(2) Increase in inventory should have been added, not deducted.



(3) Increase in accounts payable should have been deducted, not added.



Which of the criticisms are valid?



A

2 and 3 only



B

1 only



C

1 and 3 only


D 2 only


(2 marks)

17 Which of the following explains the imprest system of operating petty cash?


A

Weekly expenditure cannot exceed a set amount.



B

The exact amount of expenditure is reimbursed at intervals to maintain a fixed float.



C

All expenditure out of the petty cash must be properly authorised.


D Regular equal amounts of cash are transferred into petty cash at intervals.




(2 marks)


18 Which of the following are differences between sole traders and limited liability companies?
(1) A sole traders’ financial statements are private; a company’s financial statements are sent to shareholders and may
be publicly filed
(2) Only companies have capital invested into the business
(3) A sole trader is fully and personally liable for any losses that the business might make; a company’s shareholders
are not personally liable for any losses that the company might make.


A

1 and 2 only



B

2 and 3 only



C

1 and 3 only


D 1, 2 and 3


(2 marks)

19 Which of the following documents should accompany a payment made to a supplier?


A

Supplier statement



B

Remittance advice


C Purchase invoice


(1 mark)

20 Goodwill should never be shown on the balance sheet of a partnership.


Is this statement true or false?



A

True


B False


(1 mark)

21 Which of the following journal entries are correct, according to their narratives?

Dr
CR

$
$

1 Suspense account

18,000

Rent received account
18,000

Correction of error in posting $24,000 cash received for rent to the rent received account as $42,000

2



Share premium account
400,000
Share capital account
1 for 3 bonus issue on share capital of 1,200,000 50c shares


3




Trade investment in X
750,000
Share capital account
250,000
Share premium account

500,000
500,000 50c shares issued at $1.50 per share in exchange for shares in X



A

1 and 2



B

2 and 3



C

1 only


D 3 only


400,000

(2 marks)




22 The plant and machinery account (at cost) of a business for the year ended 31 December 2005 was as follows:

Plant and machinery – cost


2005

2005

$


1 Jan Balance

240,000
31 March Transfer disposal account

30 June Cash – purchase of plant 160,000 31 Dec Balance



400,000






$
60,000
340,000
400,000



The company’s policy is to charge depreciation at 20% per year on the straight line basis, with proportionate depreciation
in the years of purchase and disposal.



What should be the depreciation charge for the year ended 31 December 2005?





A

$68,000

B

$64,000



C

$61,000


D $55,000


(2 marks)

23 Which of the following should appear in a company’s statement of changes in equity?




1
2
3

Profit for the financial year
Amortisation of capitalised development costs
Surplus on revaluation of non-current assets



A

All three items



B

2 and 3 only



C

1 and 3 only


D 1 and 2 only


(2 marks)

24 Which of the following statements are correct?


(1) Capitalised development expenditure must be amortised over a period not exceeding five years.



(2) Capitalised development costs are shown in the balance sheet under the heading of Non-current Assets



(3) If certain criteria are met, research expenditure must be recognised as an intangible asset.



A

2 only



B

2 and 3



C

1 only


D 1 and 3


(2 marks)




25 A fire on 30 September destroyed some of a company’s inventory and its inventory records.

The following information is available:


Inventory 1 September


Sales for September

Purchases for September

Inventory in good condition at 30 September

$
318,000
612,000
412,000
214,000



Standard gross profit percentage on sales is 25%



Based on this information, what is the value of the inventory lost?





A

$96,000

B

$271,000



C

$26,400


D $57,000


(2 marks)

26 At 31 December 2004 a company’s capital structure was as follows:


Ordinary share capital

(500,000 shares of 25c each)

Share premium account

$


125,000
100,000



In the year ended 31 December 2005 the company made a rights issue of 1 share for every 2 held at $1 per share
and this was taken up in full. Later in the year the company made a bonus issue of 1 share for every 5 held, using the
share premium account for the purpose.



What was the company’s capital structure at 31 December 2005?

Ordinary share capital

$


A
450,000



Share premium account
$
125,000



B

225,000



C

225,000



325,000


D
212,500




262,500

250,000

(2 marks)

27 The inventory value for the financial statements of Q for the year ended 31 May 2006 was based on an inventory count
on 4 June 2006, which gave a total inventory value of $836,200.


Between 31 May and 4 June 2006, the following transactions took place:



Purchases of goods

Sales of goods (profit margin 30% on sales)

Goods returned by Q to supplier



$
8,600
14,000
700



What adjusted figure should be included in the financial statements for inventories at 31 May 2006?



A

$838,100



B

$853,900



C

$818,500


D $834,300


(2 marks)




28 In preparing a company’s bank reconciliation statement at March 2006, the following items are causing the difference
between the cash book balance and the bank statement balance:


(1) Bank charges $380


(2) Error by bank $1,000 (cheque incorrectly debited to the account)



(3) Lodgements not credited $4,580



(4) Outstanding cheques $1,475



(5) Direct debit $350



(6) Cheque paid in by the company and dishonoured $400.



Which of these items will require an entry in the cash book?



A

2, 4 and 6



B

1, 5 and 6



C

3, 4 and 5


D 1, 2 and 3


(2 marks)

29 At 31 December 2005 the following require inclusion in a company’s financial statements:
(1) On 1 January 2005 the company made a loan of $12,000 to an employee, repayable on 1 January 2006,
charging interest at 2 per cent per year. On the due date she repaid the loan and paid the whole of the interest
due on the loan to that date.
(2) The company has paid insurance $9,000 in 2005, covering the year ending 31 August 2006.
(3) In January 2006 the company received rent from a tenant $4,000 covering the six months to 31 December
2005.


For these items, what total figures should be included in the company’s balance sheet at 31 December 2005?




A

Current assets
$
10,000

Current liabilities
$
12,240



B

22,240

nil



C

10,240

nil


D
16,240


6,000
(2 marks)

30 How should a contingent liability be included in a company’s financial statements if the likelihood of a transfer of
economic benefits to settle it is remote?


A

Disclosed by note with no provision being made


B No disclosure or provision is required


(1 mark)

10


31 Which of the following material events after the balance sheet date and before the financial statements are
approved are adjusting events?


(1) A valuation of property providing evidence of impairment in value at the balance sheet date.


(2) Sale of inventory held at the balance sheet date for less than cost.



(3) Discovery of fraud or error affecting the financial statements.



(4) The insolvency of a customer with a debt owing at the balance sheet date which is still outstanding.



A

1, 2, 3 and 4



B

1, 2 and 4 only



C

3 and 4 only


D 1, 2 and 3 only.


(2 marks)

32 Alpha received a statement of account from a supplier Beta, showing a balance to be paid of $8,950. Alpha’s payables
ledger account for Beta shows a balance due to Beta of $4,140.


Investigation reveals the following:




(1) Cash paid to Beta $4,080 has not been allowed for by Beta
(2) Alpha’s ledger account has not been adjusted for $40 of cash discount disallowed by Beta.



What discrepancy remains between Alpha’s and Beta’s records after allowing for these items?



A

$690



B

$770



C

$9,850


D $9,930


(2 marks)

33 The business entity concept requires that a business is treated as being separate from its owners.


Is this statement true or false?



A

True


B False


(1 mark)

34 Theta prepares its financial statements for the year to 30 April each year. The company pays rent for its premises
quarterly in advance on 1 January, 1 April, 1 July and 1 October each year. The annual rent was $84,000 per year
until 30 June 2005. It was increased from that date to $96,000 per year.


What rent expense and end of year prepayment should be included in the financial statements for the year ended
30 April 2006?



A

Expense
Prepayment
$93,000
$8,000



B

$93,000

$16,000



C

$94,000

$8,000


D $94,000


$16,000
(2 marks)

11


35 Which of the following items could appear in a company’s cash flow statement?


(1) Surplus on revaluation of non-current assets



(2) Proceeds of issue of shares



(3) Proposed dividend



(4) Dividends received



A

1 and 2



B

3 and 4



C

1 and 3


D 2 and 4


(2 marks)

36 What is the role of the International Financial Reporting Interpretations Committee?


A

To create a set of global accounting standards


B To issue guidance on the application of International Financial Reporting Standards


(1 mark)

37 Q’s trial balance failed to agree and a suspense account was opened for the difference. Q does not keep receivables
and payables control accounts. The following errors were found in Q’s accounting records:
(1) In recording an issue of shares at par, cash received of $333,000 was credited to the ordinary share capital
account as $330,000
(2) Cash $2,800 paid for plant repairs was correctly accounted for in the cash book but was credited to the plant asset
account
(3) The petty cash book balance $500 had been omitted from the trial balance
(4) A cheque for $78,400 paid for the purchase of a motor car was debited to the motor vehicles account as
$87,400.


Which of the errors will require an entry to the suspense account to correct them?



A

1, 2 and 4 only



B

1, 2, 3 and 4



C

1 and 4 only


D 2 and 3 only


(2 marks)

38 Mountain sells goods on credit to Hill. Hill receives a 10% trade discount from Mountain and a further 5% settlement
discount if goods are paid for within 14 days. Hill bought goods with a list price of $200,000 from Mountain. Sales
tax is at 17.5%.


What amount should be included in Mountain’s receivables ledger for this transaction?



A

$235,000



B

$211,500



C

$200,925


D $209,925


(2 marks)

12


39 A computerised accounting system operates using the principle of double entry accounting.


Is this statement true or false?



A

True


B False


(1 mark)

40 A company receives rent from a large number of properties. The total received in the year ended 30 April 2006 was
$481,200.

The following were the amounts of rent in advance and in arrears at 30 April 2005 and 2006:


30 April 2005 3
0 April 2006

$

$

Rent received in advance

28,700
31,200

Rent in arrears (all subsequently received) 21,200
18,400


What amount of rental income should appear in the company’s income statement for the year ended 30 April
2006?





A

$486,500

B

$460,900



C

$501,500


D $475,900


(2 marks)

41 Annie is a sole trader who does not keep full accounting records. The following details relate to her transactions with
credit customers and suppliers for the year ended 30 June 2006:

$

Trade receivables, 1 July 2005
130,000

Trade payables, 1 July 2005

60,000

Cash received from customers

686,400

Cash paid to suppliers

302,800

Discounts allowed
1,400

Discounts received

2,960

Contra between payables and receivables ledgers 2,000

Trade receivables, 30 June 2006
181,000

Trade payables, 30 June 2006
84,000


What figure should appear in Annie’s income statement for the year ended 30 June 2006 for purchases?



A

$331,760



B

$740,800



C

$283,760


D $330,200


(2 marks)

13


42 The bookkeeper of Field made the following mistakes:


Discounts allowed $3,840 was credited to the discounts received account



Discounts received $2,960 was debited to the discounts allowed account



Which journal entry will correct the errors?



A Discounts allowed

Discounts received

Suspense account

DR

$7,680



$5,920
$1,760


B



Discounts allowed

$880
Discounts received

$880
Suspense account

$1,760


C


Discounts allowed
$6,800
Discounts received

$6,800


D Discounts allowed

Discounts received

Suspense account



$3,840



CR

$2,960
$880
(2 marks)

43 Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) Materiality means that only items having a physical existence may be recognised as assets.
(2) The substance over form convention means that the legal form of a transaction must always be shown in financial
statements even if this differs from the commercial effect.
(3) The money measurement concept is that only items capable of being measured in monetary terms can be
recognised in financial statements.


A

2 only



B

1, 2 and 3



C

1 only


D 3 only


(2 marks)

44 The total of the list of balances in Valley’s payables ledger was $438,900 at 30 June 2006. This balance did not agree
with Valley’s payables ledger control account balance. The following errors were discovered:




1
2
3

A contra entry of $980 was recorded in the payables ledger control account, but not in the payables ledger.
The total of the purchase returns daybook was undercast by $1,000.
An invoice for $4,344 was posted to the supplier’s account as $4,434.



What amount should Valley report in its balance sheet as accounts payable at 30 June 2006?





A

$436,830

B

$438,010



C

$439,790


D $437,830


(2 marks)

14


45 Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) A cash flow statement prepared using the direct method produces a different figure for operating cash flow from
that produced if the indirect method is used.
(2) Rights issues of shares do not feature in cash flow statements.
(3) A surplus on revaluation of a non-current asset will not appear as an item in a cash flow statement
(4) A profit on the sale of a non-current asset will appear as an item under Cash Flows from Investing Activities in a
cash flow statement.




A

1 and 4

B

2 and 3



C

3 only


D 2 and 4


(2 marks)

46 Gareth, a sales tax registered trader purchased a computer for use in his business. The invoice for the computer showed
the following costs related to the purchase:


$

Computer
890

Additional memory
95

Delivery
10

Installation
20

Maintenance (1 year)
25


1,040

Sales tax (17.5%)
182


Total
1,222



How much should Gareth capitalise as a non-current asset in relation to the purchase?



A

$1,222



B

$1,040



C

$890


D $1,015


(2 marks)

47 A and B are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio 3:2 respectively. Profit for the year was $86,500. The
partners’ capital and current account balances at the beginning of the year were as follows:

A

B

$

$

Current accounts
5,750CR 1,200CR

Capital accounts
10,000CR 8,000CR


A’s drawings during the year were $4,300, and B’s were $2,430.



What should A’s current account balance be at the end of the year?



A

$57,650



B

$51,900



C

$61,950


D $53,350


(2 marks)

15


48 What is the correct double entry to record the depreciation charge for a period?

A DR Depreciation expense

CR Accumulated depreciation

B DR Accumulated depreciation

CR Depreciation expense


(1 mark)

49 A company values its inventory using the first in, first out (FIFO) method. At 1 May 2005 the company had 700
engines in inventory, valued at $190 each.


During the year ended 30 April 2006 the following transactions took place:





2005
1 July
1 November

Purchased 500 engines at $220 each
Sold
400 engines for $160,000





2006
1 February
15 April

Purchased
Sold



What is the value of the company’s closing inventory of engines at 30 April 2006?



A

$188,500



B

$195,500



C

$166,000

300 engines at $230 each
250 engines for $125,000


D $106,000


(2 marks)

50 A company’s motor vehicles at cost account at 30 June 2006 is as follows:



Motor vehicles – cost



Balance b/f

Additions







$

35,800
Disposal

12,950 Balance c/f

48,750




$
12,000
36,750



48,750



What opening balance should be included in the following period’s trial balance for motor vehicles – cost at 1 July
2006?



A

$36,750 DR



B

$48,750 DR



C

$36,750 CR


D $48,750 CR


(2 marks)

16


Answers

17


Pilot Paper F3 (INT)

Financial Accounting (International)

Answers

1 B
2 B 37,000 + ((517,000 – 37,000)*5%) – 39,000) = 22,000
3 C
4 A
5 B -3,860 – 9,160 + 16,690 = 3,670
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C 83,600 +18,000 – (18,000*25%) = 97,100
10 B
11 D
Receivables ledger control account


$

Opening balance
308,600
Contras

Credit sales
154,200 Cash received
Interest charged
2,400
Discounts allowed

Bad debts

Closing balance




465,200


12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26

B
B
A
D
B
B
C
B
A
D
D
C
A
D
B

$
4,600
147,200
1,400
4,900
307,100
465,200

1,000,000/40years = 25,000; 1,000,000 – (800,000 – (800,000*2%*10years)) = 360,000
((300,000 + 30,000) / 2 * ½ ) + (300,000 + 30,000) / 2 * 1/3) – (30,000 * ½ ) = 122,500

(240,000*20%) + (6/12*160,000*20%) – (9/12*60,000*20%) = 55,000
(318,000 + 412,000 – 214,000) – (612,000*75%) = 57,000
125,000 + (500,000*1/2*25c) + (750,000*1/5*25c) = 225,000; 100,000 + (500,000*1/2*75c) –
(750,000*1/5*25c) = 250,000
836,200 – 8,600 + (14,000*70%) + 700 = 838,100

27 A
28 B
29 B 12,000 + (12,000*2%) + (9,000*8/12) + 4,000 = 22,240
30 B
31 A
32 A (8,950 – 4,080) – (4,140 + 40) = 690
33 A
34 D (84,000*2/12) + (96,000*10/12) = 94,000; 96,000*2/12 = 16,000
35 D
36 B
37 B
38 D List Price
200,000

Trade discount
(20,000)


180,000

Sales tax (17.5%*95%*180,000)
29,925


209,925
39 B
40 D
Rent receivable



$

O/Balance

21,200
O/Balance

Income statement

475,900
Disposal

C/Balance

31,200
C/Balance




528,300




18

$
28,700
481,200
18,400
528,300


41 A
Payables ledger



$

Cash paid

302,800
O/balance

Discounts received
2,960
Purchases

Contra

2,000

C/balance

84,000



391,760


42 B
43 D
44 D 438,900 – 980-90 = 437,830
45 C
46 D 890 + 95 + 10 + 20 = 1,015
47 D 5,750 + (86,500*3/5) – 4,300 = 53,350
48 A
49 A (300@230) + (500@220) + (50@190) = 188,500
50 A

19



$
60,000
331,760

391,760



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