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PRACTICE TEST 13
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 7.
One of the highest honors for formalists, writers, and musical composers is the
Pulitzer Prize. First awarded in 1927, the Pulitzer Prize has been won by Ernest
Hemingway, Harper Lee, John F. Kennedy, and Rodgers and Hammerstein, among
others. As with many famous awards, this prize was named after its founder, Joseph
Pulitzer.
Joseph Pulitzer‟s story, like that of many immigrants to the United States, is one of
hardship, hard work and triumph. Born in Hungary, Joseph Pulitzer moved to United
States in 1864. He wanted to be a reporter, but he started his American life by fighting
in the American Civil War. After the war, Pulitzer worked for the German - language
newspaper, the Westliche Post. His skills as a reporter were wonderful, and he soon
became a partial owner of the paper.
In 1978, Pulitzer was able to start a newspaper of his own. Right from the first
edition, the newspaper took a controversial approach to new. Pulitzer wanted to appeal
to the average reader, so he produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue. Such an
approach is commonplace today, but in Pulitzer’s time it was new and different. The
approach led to the discovery of many instances of corruption by influential people.
Pulitzer’s paper became very famous and is still produced today.
The success of Joseph Pulitzer‟s newspaper made him a very wealthy man, so he

wanted to give something back to his profession. Throughout his later years, he worked
to establish university programs for the teaching of journalism, and he funded
numerous scholarships to assist journalism students. Finally, he wanted to leave a
legacy that would encourage writers to remember the importance of quality. On his
death, he gave two million dollars to Columbia University so they could award prizes to
great writers.
The Pulitzer Prize recipients are a very select group. For most, winning a Pulitzer Prize
is the highlight of their career. If an author, journalist, or composer you know has won a
Pulitzer Prize, you can be sure they are at the top of their profession.
Question 1. Why does the writer mention "John F. Kennedy" in line 3?
A. He was one of the inventors of the famous awards.
B. He was one of the winners of the Pulitzer Prize.
C. He was one of the people who selected the Pulitzer winners.
D. He was in one of the scandals reported on by Joseph Pulitzer.
Question 2. According to the reading passage, why did Joseph Pulitzer invent the
Pulitzer Prize?
A. to encourage people to remember his name and success
B. encourage writers to remember the importance of quality
C. to encourage journalism students to achieve their goals
D. to encourage work of the Pulitzer winners
Question 3. The word “partial” in the passage is closest in meaning to……
A. in part only
B. brand new
C. one and only
D. very
important .
Question 4. According the passage, who receives the Pulitzer Prize?
A. Columbia University graduates
B.journalism students
C.noted writers and composers
D.most newspaper reporters
Question 5. According to the reading passage, how did Joseph Pulitzer appeal to the
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average reader?
A. He wrote about famous writers of journalism and literature
B. He wrote stories about the war
C. He produced his own newspaper
D. He produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue


Question 6. Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is true according to the reading
passage?
A. He received a scholarship when he was a university student.
B. He was rich even when he was young
C. He was a reporter during the American Civil War
D. He immigrated to the United States from Hungary
Question 7. Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is NOT true according to the reading
passage?
A. Joseph Pulitzer was the first writer to the win the prize in 1917.
B. The prize is aimed at encouraging a writer‟s career.
C. Joseph Pulitzer left money to award to the prizewinners.
D. Receiving the prize is one of the highest honors for writers.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined
part that needs correction on each of the followwing questions
Question 8. United Nations is aimed at develop friendly relations among nations based
on
A
B
respect for the principle of equal rights ans sefl-determination of peoples
C
D
Question 9. All members shall give the United Nations every assistance in any action it
does
A
B
C
in accordance with the present Charter.
D
Question 10. Cutural diversity is important because most countries, workplaces, and
schools
A
increasingly consist of various culture, racial and ethnic group.
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions.
Question 11. A. rhinoceros
B. biologist
C. reserve
D. digest
Question 12. A. form
B. shortcoming
C. chore
D. sector
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions
Question 13. The atmosphere at the meeting was very and everyone was on first
name terms
A. formal
B. informal
C. formality
D. informality
Question 14. Mark enjoys having fun by causing trouble. He's very _________ boy.
A. strong willed
B. mischievous
C. obedient
D. well behaved
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Question 15. Many young people nowadays are prepared to getting married to pursue
their professional careers.
A satisfy
B. sacrifice
C. prefer
D. confide
Question 16. My boss's planeat 10.15 tomorrow morning, but I cannot pick him up.
A. arrives
B. is arriving
C. will be arriving
D. arrived
Question 17. Jack asked Jil interested in any kinds of sports.
A. if she were
B. if were she
C. if was she
D. if she was
Question 18. Whenever problemswe discuss frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. make up
B. come up
C. put up
D. turn up
Question 19. Children should be taught that they have to……….. everything after
they use it.
A. put away
B. pick off
C. collect up
D. catch on
Question 20. Vietnamese parents normally do not let their children make a decision
their own future career.
A. in
B. of
C. on
D. for
Question 21. The police have just round the man and his car were swept away during
the heavy storm last week.
A. that
B. which
C.whose
D.when
Question 22. the more terrible the terrorism will become.
A. The more weapons are powerful
C. The more powerful weapons are
B. The weapons more powerful
D. Weapons are the more powerful
Question 23. We are concerned with the problem of energy resourceswe must also
think of our environment.
A. despite
B. though
C. however
D. but
Question 24. When finding a new house, parents should………….all the conditions for
their children‟s education and entertainment.
A. take into account
B. make all the conditions
C. get a measure of
D. put into effect
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most
suitable response to complete each of following exchanges.
Question 25. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.
Diana.” Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?”
Anne.” ”
A. I‟m half ready.
B. God save you.
C. Thank you so much
D. Don’t mention it!
Question 26. Mary is talking to her professor in his office.
Mary.” Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?”
Professor. “_

A. I like it that you understand.
B. Try your best, Mary.
C. You can borrow books from the library.D. You mean the podcasts from other students?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
following questions.
Question 27. A. maximum
B. vacancy
C. terrorist
D. investment
Question 28. A. vertical
B. contractual
C. domestic
D.
outstanding
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 29. Language teaching in the United State is base on the idea that the goal
of language acquisition is communicative complete.
A. Not good at socializing.
C. unable to understand
B. Excellent in orating in front of others D. incapable of working with words
Question 30. This is new washing machine is not a patch on our old one. These
clothes are still dirty.
A. To be expensive
B. To be strange
C. to be broken
D. to be
better
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s)
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following
questions
Question 31. Today, American English is particularly influential, due to the USA’s
dominance of cinema, television, popular music, trade and technology (including the
Internet)
A. complete mastery
B. overwhelming superiority
C. complete control
D. profound effect
Question 32. Students motivation for learning a language increase when they see
connection between what they do in classroom and what they hope to do with the
language in the future.
A. the reason for which someone does something
B. the action that someone takes to deal with something
C. the eagerness that someone has to do something
D. the excitement with which one is filled when doing something.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 33. “What are you going to do with such a long list of books, Dane?” asked
Sarah
A. Sarah was curious why Dane had such a long list of books.
B. Sarah asked Dane what he was going to do with such a long list of books.
C. Sarah could not understand why Dane was borrowing such a long list of books.
D. Sarah warned Dane not to borrow such a long list of books.
Question 34. “Are you going to the cinema with us tonight, Susan?” asks her friends.
A. Susan‟s friend asked her whether she went to the cinema with them that night
B. Susan‟s friend asked her if she was going to the cinema with them that night
C. Susan‟s friend would like to invite her to go to the cinema with them that night
D. Susan‟s friend would rather her went to the cinema with them that night.
Question 35. The Internet has enabled most people to get contact in a matter of
moment
A. Most of people have been able to get in contact by the Internet in a matter of
moments.
B. Most of people have got in contact as enable in a matter of moments by the Internet
C. On the Internet, most of people are able to get in contact a matter of moments.
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D. On the Internet, most of people can find their contact a matter of moments
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fist each of the
numbered blanks
Tim Samaras is a storm chaser. His job is to find tornadoes and follow them. When he
gets close to a tornado, he puts a special tool (36)________ a turtle probe on the ground.
This tool measures things like a twister‟s temperatune, humidity, and wind speed.
With this information, Samaras can lean what causes tornadoes to develop. If
meteorologists understand this, they can warn people (37)________ twisters sooner and
save lives.
How does Samaras hunt tornadoes? It‟s not easy. First, he has to find one. Tornadoes
are too small to see using weather satellites. So Samaras can‟t rely on these tools to
find a twister. (38)________ , he waits for tornadoes to develop.
Once Samaras sees a tornado, the chase begins. But a tornado is hard to follow.
Some tornadoes change (39)
__ several time – for example, moving east and then
west and then east again. When Samaras finally gets near a tornado, het puts the
turtle probe on the ground. Being this close to twister is (40)________ . He must get
away quickly.
Question 36. A. called
B. know
C. made
D. meant
Question 37. A. with
B. about
C. at
D. for
Question 38. A. Rather
B. Still
C. Instead
D. Yet
Question 39. A. progression
B. movement
C. dimension
D.
direction
Question 40. A. terrifly
B. terrifying
C. terrified
D. terrifies
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following question.
Question 41. The teacher has done his best to help all students. However, none of them
made any effort on their part
A. The teacher has done his best to help all student, then, none of them made any effort on
their part
B. Although the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any effort on
their part
C. Because the teacher has done his best to help all students, , none of them made any effort on
their part
D. If the teacher has done his best to help all students, , none of them made any effort on
their part

Question 42. “ Finish your work. And then you can go home”.
A. “You can‟t go home until you finish your work”
B. “You finish your work to go home as early as you can”
C. “When you go home, finish your work then”
D. “Because you have finished your work, you can go home”.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Clara Barton became known as “ The Angel of the Battlefield” during the
American Civil War. Born in Oxford, Massachusetts in 1821, Clara Barton‟s interest in
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helping soldiers on the battlefield began when she was told army stories from her
father. Another event that influenced her decision to help soldiers was an accident her
brother had. His injuries were cared for by Barton for 2 year. At the time, she was only
11 years old. Barton began teaching school at the age of 15. She taught for 18 years
before she moved to Washington, D.C in 1854.
The civil war broke out 6 years later. Immediately, Barton started war
service by helping the soldiers with their needs. At the battle of Bull run, Clara Barton
received permission from the government to take care of the sick and hurt. Barton did
this with great empathy and kindness. She acknowledged each soldier as a person .
her endurance and courage on the battlefield were admired by many. When the war
ended in 1865 , she used 4 years of her life to assist the government in searching for
soldiers who were missing during the war.
The search for missing soldiers and years of hard work made her feeble
physically. In 1869, her doctors recommended a trip to Europe for a rest. While she was
on vacation , she became involved with the International Red Cross, an organization set
up by the Geneva Convention in 1864. Clara Barton realized that the Red Cross would
be a best help to the United States. After she returned to the United States, she worked
very hard to create an American Red Cross. She talked to government leaders and let
American people know about the Red Cross. In 1881, the National Society of the Red
Cross was finally established with its headquarters in Washington, D.C. Clara Barton
managed its activities for 23 years.
Barton never let her age stop her from helping people. At the age of 79, she
helped food victims in Galveston, Texas. Barton finally resigned from the Red Cross in
1904. She was 92 years old and had truly earned her title “The Angel of the Battle”.
Question 43. According to the paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the young
Barton Clara?
A. She helpep her father when he was a soldier
B. She suffered from an accident when she was 11
C. She helped her brother who hurt in an accident
D. She made a decision to live with her brother for 2 years
Question 44. The phrase broke out in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. extended
B. broken down
C. closed
D. began
Question 45. The word this in paragraph 2 refers to
A. recognized each soldier as a person
B. cooker for soldiers
C. took care of the sick and hurt
D. received permission
Question 46. The word acknowledged in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by
A. nursed
B. recognized
C. pleaded
D. believed
Question 47. What can be inferred about the government?
A. It did not always agree with Clara barton
B. It did not have the money to help Clara Barton
C. It showed Clara Barton great empathy and kindness
D. It had respect for Clara Barton
Question 48. What does the author mention about the American Red Cross?
A. It was disapproved again and again by the Geneva Convention
B. Barton tried to have it set up in America
C. The American people were not interested in the Red Cross
D. It was first established in the Unites States
Question 49. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Clara Barton helped wounded soldiers and she was the founder of the Red Cross
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B. Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in need
C. Clara Barton becam a nurse during the American Civil War
D. Clara Barton worked for disaster victims until she was old
Question 50. What can be the best title of the reading passage?
A. The angel of the Battlefield
C. The American Civil War
B. The American Red Cross
D. The International Red Cross
~~THE END~~

PRACTICE TEST 14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of
the following questions.
Question 1. A. chemistry
B. chocolate
C. speech
D. lunch
Question 2. A. book
B. foot
C. good
D. boot
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
following questions.
Question 3. A. calculation
B. economics
C. photography D.
conservation
Question 4. A. industry B. adventure
C. consider
D. eventual
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined
part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5. Bill is often late for class, which makes his teachers angrily.
A. which
B. angrily
C. for
D. is
Question 6. In the end of the party, Mary had to wash the dishes alone again, as usual
.
A. as usual
B. wash
C. In
D. alone again
Question 7. The oceans,which cover two-thirds of earth’s surface , are the object of
study for oceanographers.
A. The oceans B. of earth’s surface
C. object
D. for
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8. He ______ for two weeks. He is trying to give it up.
A. isn’t smoking
B. hasn’t smoked C. doesn’t smoke
D. didn’t smoked
Question 9. He is a _______ boy. He is often kind and helpful to every classmate.
A. lovely
B. obedient
C. frank
D. caring
Question 10. Many of pictures ______ from outer space are presently on display in the
public library.
A. that sent
B. sending
C. sent
D. to sending
Question 11. Do you have ______ minutes? I’d like to ask you some questions.
A. a little
B. few
C. little
D. a few
Question 12. Instead of buying a new pair of shoes, I had my old ones ______.
A. repaired
B. repairing
C. to repair
D. repair
Question 13. Don’t forget ______ me as soon as you arrive at the airport.
A. called
B. call
C. calling
D. to call
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Question 14. How ______ homework did the teacher assign?
A. much
B. plenty
C. little
D. many
Question 15. Peter has been studying for almost three years and he will have his
degree and return to his country in ______ six months.
A. others
B. another
C. other
D. the other
Question 16. The director ______ the men to turn to work immediately.
A. ordered
B. insisted
C. demanded
D.
suggested
Question 17. __ number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know _____
exact number of them.
A. A/the
B. A/an
C. The/the
D. The/an
Question 18. During his _____, he lived with his uncle’s family in the United States.
A. childish
B. child
C. childlike
D. childhood
Question 19. I like her, ______ she can be very annoying at times.
A. however
B. therefore
C. even though
D. despite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most
suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Tom: “Hello, nice to see you again.” Jerry: “______.”
A. Me too
B. I don’t think you are
C. Neither am I
D. You shouldn’t be
so
Question 21. Mike: “Would you like a cup of coffee?” Ann: “______.”
A. Yes, please
B. No, I don’t
C. Yes, I do
D. No, I don’t
like
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 22. The old houses were knocked down to make way for a new block of
flats.
A. pulled apart
B. struck through
C. demolished
D. abolished
Question 23. After Mary finishes her degree, she intends to work in her father's
company.
A. an institution for business studies
B. a university or college course
C. an amount or level of something
D. a unit for measuring angles
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 24. Simon admitted that his joke on his girlfriend’s clothes was deliberate.
A. planned
B. unintentional
C. unknown
D. unwanted
Question 25. The boy wasn't allowed to have any friends, so he became an introvert.
A. someone who is active and confident, and who enjoys spending time with other
people
B. someone who is quiet and shy, and does not enjoy being with other people
C. someone who believes that good things will never happen to him and other people
D. someone who wears funny clothes and does silly things to make people laugh
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
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Question 26. The garage serviced my car last week.
A. I got my car serviced last week.
B. My car was to be serviced last
week.
C. The garage’s service to my car was good.
D. Last week I went to the garage
by car.
Question 27. The train drivers' strike made it hard for us to get to work.
A. We found it difficult to get to work because of the train drivers' strike.
B. When the train drivers were having a strike, we could get to work.
C. We were unable to get to work when the train drivers' strike happened.
D. The train drivers' strike made it impossible for us to get to work.
Question 28. The train should be here any minute now.
A. We know that the train is always here on time.
B. The train has not arrived here
yet.
C. The train is known to be here in a minute.
D. We are expecting the train to
arrive soon.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
Question 30. We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered
blanks
By the 1950s many American families owned television sets. During television's first
20 years, deaf people missed most of the fun. They could not hear what was being said
and had to (31)_____.
Deaf people who watched television liked sports and action shows, but they were
disappointed with other programs. If there was a lot of (32)_____, deaf viewers couldn't
follow the plot. Even the most skilled lip readers could only catch part of the talking.
This frustrated many deaf people.
In the late 1960s, a man started experimenting. Malcom Norwood thought that deaf
people could enjoy television programs, too. He wanted to develop captions for the
programs. Norwood worked for the federal government's Media Services and Captioned
Films Division at the Bureau of Education of the Handicapped. Norwood surveyed many
hearing Americans. He wanted to see how they felt about seeing captions on the
television screen. Too many people were against the (33)_____. Norwood realized he
had to develop another way of captioning - one that would not bother hearing people.
In October of 1971, Norwood's (34)_____ signed a contract with WGBH-TV, a public
television station in Boston. WGBH was hired to experiment with captions. They agreed
9


to make a captioned television program for Norwood. That program was made. It was
shown on television and at a special convention. The type of captions made by WGBH
could be seen on any television. No special equipment was needed. These were called
"open captions."
Later, a new machine was invented. This device was made to send signals on a
special part of the television picture. The signals could be captions. If a family had
another kind of machine in their home or in their TV set, then the captions (or signals)
would appear on their television screen. Without the machine, no captions would be
seen. That special machine is called a decoder. It receives the signals (35)_____from the
television station. Captions that require a decoder are called "closed captions".
Question 31. A. forecast
B. find
C. guess
D. wait
Question 32. A. scene
B. dialogue
C. talk
D.
conversation
Question 33. A. law
B. questions
C. actors
D. idea
Question 34. A. students B. channels
C. company
D. office
Question 35. A. moved
B. gone
C. transmitted
D. sent
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Mandatory volunteering made many members of Maryland's high school class
of 97 grumble with indignation. They didn't like a new requirement that made them
take part in the school's community service program.
Future seniors, however, probably won't be as resistant now that the program
has broken in. Some, like John Maloney, already have completed their required hours of
approved community service. The Bowie High School sophomore earned his hours in
eighth grade by volunteering two nights a week at the Larkin-Chase Nursing and
Restorative Center in Bowie.
He played shuffle board, cards, and other games with the senior citizens. He also
helped plan parties for them and visited their rooms to keep them company.
John, fifteen, is not finished volunteering. Once a week he videotapes animals
at the Prince George's County animal shelter in Forestville. His footage is shown on the
Bowie public access television channel in hopes of finding homes for the animals.
"Volunteering is better than just sitting around," says John, "and I like
animals; I don't want to see them put to sleep."
He's not the only volunteer in his family. His sister, Melissa, an eighth grader,
has completed her hours also volunteering at Larkin-Chase.
"It is a good idea to have kids go out into the community, but it's frustrating
to have to write essays about the works," she said. It makes you feel like you're doing it
for the requirement and not for yourself."
The high school's service learning office, run by Beth Ansley, provides information on
organizations seeking volunteers so that students will have an easier time fulfilling their
hours.
"It's ridiculous that people are opposing the requirements," said Amy Rouse,
who this summer has worked at the Ronald McDonald House and has helped to rebuild
a church in Clinton.
"So many people won't do the service unless it's mandatory," Rouse said,
"but once they start doing it, they'll really like it and hopefully it will become a part of
their lives - like it has become a part of mine."
Question 36. The best title of the passage could be ______.
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A. "Students Who Volunteer to Work with Senior Citizens"
B. "Students Who Earn Extra Money after School"
C. "A Volunteer Program at Bowie High School"
D. "The High School Class of 1977"
Question 37. The word "frustrating" in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. interesting
B. happy
C. satisfying
D. upset
Question 38. The word "it" in paragraph 7 refers to ______.
A. completing requirements
B. writing essays
C. doing volunteer work
D. A. going out in the community
Question 39. From paragraphs 6 and 7, we can infer that Melissa Maloney ______.
A. volunteers because it's a requirement
B. is frustrated by her volunteer job
C. volunteers because it makes her feel good
D. doesn't like to write essays about her volunteer work
Question 40. According to the last two paragraphs, Amy Rouse thinks that ______.
A. most people don't like volunteering, so they don't want to do it
B. most people will discover they enjoy volunteering if they try it
C. the volunteer program shouldn't be mandatory
D. people should be able to choose whether they want to volunteer
Question 41. Which of the following volunteer activities is NOT mentioned in the
passage?
A. Videotaping animals in a shelter.
B. Rebuilding a church.
C. Tutoring children.
D. Visiting elderly people.
Question 42. In the passage, the author gives the explanation of the concept of
mandatory volunteer programs by ______.
A. describing one volunteer program
B. classifying different types of volunteer
programs
C. arguing in favor of volunteer programs
D. comparing two volunteer programs
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large
boulders. The most abundant particles - sand, silt, and clay - are the focus of
examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the line
composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative
handfuls . To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by
size and weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the
sample weight.
In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing
the damp soil into three basic shapes: (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample
in a clenched fist; (2) thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms;
and (3) ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the
thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into
each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a general
textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined by the
amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when
dampened , behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample,
the more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.
11


Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment
sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered through a
group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in
corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a textural
determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger particles, they are
not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in
soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the basis of their
settling velocity when suspended in water. Since clays settle so slowly, they are easily
segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and evaporated, leaving a
residue of clay, which can be weighed.
Question 43. The author mentions “several representative handfuls” in the
passage in order to show ______.
A. the range of soil samples
B. the requirements for an adequate soil sam
C. the process by which soil is weighed D. how small soil particles are
Question 44. It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in
paragraph 2 reflect ______.
A. the way the soil is extracted
B. the need to check more than one handful
C. the difficulty of forming different shapes
D. the results of squeezing the soil
Question 45. The word “dampened” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. damaged
B. stretched
C. moistened
D. examined
Question 46. It can be inferred from the passage that a soil sample with little or no
clay in it ______.
A. does not have a durable shape
B. is not very heavy
C. does not have a classifiable texture
D. may not hold its shape when molded
Question 47. The word “they” in the passage refers to ______.
A. larger particles
B. sieves
C. categories
D.
clay
particles
Question 48. It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an
advantage over the hand test in determining soil texture because ______.
A. the sieve allows for a more exact measure B. less training is required to use the
sieve
C. using the sieve takes less time
D. the sieve can measure clay
Question 49. During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are
placed into water they ______.
A. stick to the sides of the water container
B. dissolve quickly
C. take some time to sink to the bottom
D. separate into different sizes
Question 50. The word “fine” in the passage is closest in meaning to ______.
A. many
B. excellent
C. tiny
D. various
~~ THE END ~~

PRACTICE TEST 15
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions.
Question 1. A. sender
B. complete
C. penalty
D. bedroom
Question 2. A. reformed B. sacrificed
C. dissolved
D. ploughed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
12


differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
following questions
Question 3. A. mathematics
B. history
C. literature D.
physics
Question 4. A. economy B. village
C. interest
D. industry
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined
part that needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 5. Supposed that (A) you failed (B) your driving test, would (C) you take (D)
it again?
Question 6. I often look into (A) new words in (B) the dictionary whenever (C) I don’t
know their meanings (D)
Question 7. When I came (A) to the theatre, I saw a handsome American young
(B) man standing (C) on the stage (D)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions
Question 8. The harder you work,
you‟ll pass the exam.
A. the best
B. the worst
C. the better
D. the worse
Question 9. Our school
about 600 new students every year.
A. admits
B. allows
C. accepts
D. gets
Question 10. There
a number of reasons for the fall of the Roman Empire.
A. are said to have been
B. said to be
C. are said being
D. was said being
Question 11. Let’s go to the beach - it’s
a day to sit indoors.
A. nice enough B. too nice
C. so nice
D. such nine
Question 12. I don‟t like
when I am not there.
A. criticizing
B. being criticized
C. to criticize
D. to be criticized
Question 13. If I __
in her position, I could turn down the job.
A. am
B. had been
C. will be
D. were
Question 14. I thought you said she was going away the next Sunday,
?
A. wasn't it
B. didn't you
C. wasn't she
D. didn't I
Question 15. I
my hand to draw her attention but she took no ______ of me.
A. waved/ notice
B. shook/ noticed
C. waved/ attention
D.
shook/ attention
Question 16. These days everybody is aware _________the danger of smoking.
A. up
B. of
C. on
D. with
Question 17. I can’t speak English,
A. neither can she
B. she can’t either
C. she can’t too D. A & B
are correct
Question 18. Gestures such as waving and handshaking are forms of
___communication.
A. direct
B. regular
C. verbal
D. non-verbal
Question 19. When Mr.Kim needs a car, he uses
A. his son’s
B. that one of his son C. car of his son
D. he son’s own car
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most
suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges
Question 20. Jane: Thank you for a lovely evening.
Barbara:
13


A. You are welcome
B. Have a good day
C. Thanks D. Cheer!
Question 21. A: _______
B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
C. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions
Question 22. Tourists today flock to see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara
falls.
A. come by plane
B. come in large numbers
C. come out of boredom
D. come without knowing what they will see
Question 23. A lack of qualifications can be a major obstacle to finding a job.
A.impediment B. encouragement
C. impetus
D. assistance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions
Question 24. Children must sit on an parent’s lap unless an empty seat is available.
A. unoccupied B. booked
C. disused
D. abandoned
Question 25. Smoking has been banned in public places in some countries.
A. made illegal B. limited
C. restricted
D. given way
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. "Shall I make you a coffee?" the girl said to the man.
A. The girl wanted to make a coffee for the man.
B. The girl was asked to make a coffee for the man.
C. The girl promised to make a coffee for the man.
D. The girl offered to make a coffee for the man
Question 27. “I was not there at the time,” he said.
A. He denied to have been there at the time.
B. He denied that he had not been there at the time.
C. He denied to be there at the time.
D. He denied having been there at the time.
Question 28. No matter how hard he tried, Mike could not make sense of his
economics textbook.
A. Mike could not understand his economics textbook because he hardly tried to at all.
B. In spite of his efforts, Mike was unable to understand the contents of his economics
textbook.
C. If Mike had studied harder, he would have been able to comprehend what was in his
economics textbook.
D. It was impossible for Mike to understand his economics textbook without making a
great effort.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
14


Question 29. Mary was sick. She didn’t leave the meeting until it ended.
A. In spite of the fact that Mary’s sickness, she didn’t leave the meeting until it ended.
B. Mary didn’t leave the meeting until it ended despite she was sick.
C. When the meeting ended, Mary left because she was sick.
D. Though sick, Mary didn’t leave the meeting until it ended.
Question 30. She heard the news of the death of her mother. She fainted.
A. On hearing the news of her dead mother, she fainted.
B. She fainted and then she heard the news of the death of her mother.
C. She fainted so she heard the news of the death of her mother.
D. On hearing the news of her mother’s death, she fainted.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the
numbered blanks
However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product
solely on itsmerits, considering quality, value and style before making a decision. (31)
_________, we are easily influenced by the people around us.
There is nothing (32) _______ with this. It is probably a smarter
way to make decisions than (33) _____ on only our own opinions. But it does make life
hard for companies. They have long understood that groups of friends and relatives
tend to buy the same products, but understanding the reasons has been tricky. It is
because they are so similar with (34) ________ to how much money they make and what
television ads they watch that they independently (35) _______ at the same decision
Question 31. A. What’s more
B. Instead
C. Unlike
D.
In
place
Question 32. A. wrong
B. silly
C. bad D. daft
Question 33. A. basing
B. trusting
C. supposing D.
relying
Question 34. A. connection B. regard
C. relation
D. concern
Question 35. A. reach
B. come
C. arrive
D. get
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
PHOBIAS CONTROL THE EYES
People with an overpowering fear of something may not be able to consciously
control the direction of their gaze when faced with a picture that provokes that fear.
Those with a fear of spiders, or arachnophobia, may not be able to avoid looking toward
a spider in the grass, while those without the fear can. To reach this finding, 26 college
students - half of whom had arachnophobia - were outfitted with a device that tracks
eye movements. The participants were then shown a four-by-four grid of flowers on a
computer screen, where a picture of a grey-brown spider and a grey-brown mushroom
each occupied one space on the grid.
In one trial, the students were asked to press the spacebar when they spotted a
mushroom, but to ignore any spiders. In a second, the students were asked to press the
key when they saw the spider, but to avoid looking at mushrooms. When instructed to
ignore the spider and spot the mushroom, the students with arachnophobia could not
avoid looking at the spider - causing them to notice the mushroom three-tenths of a
second more slowly than the control group. Additionally, when the students were asked
to search for the spider, the arachnophobic students found the spider and pressed the
space bar about three-tenths of a second more quickly than the non-phobic students.
15


These findings show that the attention processes of people with a powerful fear of
spiders may be beyond their conscious control. This suggests that treatments that
focus on conscious thought processes may not work for such phobias. Instead,
therapists could focus on treatments such as systematic desensitization.
Question 36. What can we infer that the word phobia means?
A. a new type of spider
B. a fear of something
C. a scientific experiment
D. the name of a flower
Question 37. Why was the device to track eye movement needed?
A. to make sure the students were looking at the computer screen
B. to move the spider’s location around
C. to verify where the students were looking
D. to make the students look only in one place
Question 38. What do the results of the experiment tell us about people with phobias?
A. They should always avoid the object of their fear.
B. They don’t have to try to change their thoughts.
C. They can’t consciously choose how to react to the feared object.
D. All of the above
Question 39. It can be inferred that provokes in paragraph I is closest in meaning to
A. eases
B. treats
C. reminds
D. causes
Question 40. It can be inferred that spotted in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. ignored
B. feared
C. saw
D. instructed
Question 41. The word their in paragraph 3 refers to
.
A. findings
B. processes
C. spiders
D. none of the above
Question 42. What is the purpose of the passage?
A. to prove that phobias are a myth
B. to help people with phobias
C. to relate research findings about phobias affecting eye control
D. to relate research findings about phobias controlling eyesight.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza
was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720
B.C . Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction makes it one of the truly
wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of
stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and
the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The
four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and
west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and
great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical
observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal
many intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of
timeline of events – past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted
and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future
generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have
supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it
with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past. Was this superstructure made by ordinary
beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?
16


Question 43. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies
B. Advanced technology
C. Advanced tools of measurement
D. knowledge of the earth‟s surface
Question 44. What has research of the base revealed?
A. there are cracks in the foundation
B. The lines represent important events
C. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
D. A superior race of people built
in
Question 45. Extraterrestrial beings are
.
A. living beings from other planets
B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology
D. very strong workers
Question 46. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden
passages ?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night
C. To enable the Pharaoh‟s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
Question 47. In the second passage , the word “prophesied‟ is closest in meaning
to
A. affiliated
B. precipitated
C. terminated
D. foretold
Question 48. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders
of the world?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many
prophecies
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops
C. It was built by a super race
D. It is very old
Question 49. The word feat in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to
.
A. accomplishment
B. Appendage
C. festivity D.
structure
Question 50. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architects’ plan for the hidden passages
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies
C. Astrological computations
D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time
~~THE END~~

PRACTICE TEST 16

17


18


19


20


PRACTICE TEST 17
Mark the letter to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation .
Question 1: A. stopped
B. cooked
C. laughed
D. started
Question 2. A. allow
B. tomorrow
C. slowly
D. below
Mark the letter to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress
Question 3: A. capture
B. picture
C. ensure
D. pleasure
Question 4: A. business
B. opponent
C. specialize
D.
agency
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: College students are becoming less dependent_____________ their
teachers.
A. on
B. with
C. of
D. to
Question 6: She is the woman about_____________ I told you.
A. which
B. whose
C. whom
D. that
Question 7: How long ago_____________ to learn French?
A. would you start
B. did you start
C. were you starting
D. have you started
Question 8: _____________ he was tired, he still watched the final match on TV.
A. Though
B. However
C. Despite
D. Because
Question 9: Nowadays, most students use_______ calculators in their studies and exams.
A. electrical
B. electronic
C. electricity
D. electric
Question 10: It__________ it is parents' responsibility to take good care of their children.
A. commonly says that
B. is commonly saying
C. commonly to be said that
D. is commonly said that
Question 11: Neither Tom nor his brothers ____ willing to help their mother with the
housework.
A. was
B. are
C. has been
D. is
Question 12: ______________ that she does not want to stay any longer.
A. So homesick does Beth feel
B. Beth feels such homesick
C. Homesick though Beth may feel
D. A little homesick does Beth feel
Question 13. _____________ harder, you would have passed the exam.
A. If you studied
B. If had you studied
C. Had you studied
D. Were you studied
Question 14. A house in London costs ______ a similar house in Liverpool.
A. twice as much as
B. twice as much more
C. as much as twice
D. twice as many as
Question 15 “John shouldn’t have behaved so badly.”, said Janet.
A. Janet doesn't like John's behaviors.
B. Janet was angry with John.
C. Janet disliked John.
D. Janet objected to John's behaviors.
Question 16: I hope you will_____________ notice of what I am going to tell you.
A. gain
B. keep
C. get
D. take
21


Choose A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase
CLOSEST in meaning .
Question 17: Don't be concerned about your mother's illness; she'll recover soon.
A. surprised at
B. worried about C. embarrassed at
D. angry with
Question 18: Although they hold similar political views, their religious beliefs present a
striking contrast.
A. significant difference
B. interesting resemblance
C. minor comparison
D. complete coincidence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or
phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning
Question 19: This shouldn’t be too taxing for you.
A. comfortable
B. demanding
C. easy
D. relaxing
Question 20: The Germany’s war hysteria has accounted for its people’s hostility
towards foreigners.
A. disease
B. ceremony
C. malaria
D. serenity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most
suitable respond to complete each of the following exchanges
Question 21: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!”
Sue: “___________”
A. Don’t mention it.
B. How dare you? C. I’m afraid so.
D. Thank you.
Question 22 : - Jack: "What's wrong with you?"
- Jill: "_______________."
A. I'm having a slight headache
B. Thank you very much
C. Yes, I was tired yesterday
D. No, I don't care
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined
part that needs correction .
Question 23: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been
proved.
A
B
C
D
Question 24: Rock music was original a mixture of country music and rhythm and
blues.
A
B
C
D
Question 25: Wind is the motion that occurs when lightest air rises and cooler heavier air
replaces it.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that is closest in meaning .
Question 26. Their chances of success are small.
A. They will certainly be successful.
B. It’s possible that they will
achieve success.
C. They have no chances of being successful.
D. It’s not very likely that they will
succeed.
Question 27. Kate works for an organization which collects money to help orphans.
A. The organization which Kate works for collects money to help orphans.
B. The organization where Kate works for collects money to help orphans.
C. The organization for that Kate works collects money to help orphans.
D. Money of orphans is collected in the organization where Kate works.
Question 28. The Minister said that he had not done anything improper.
22


A. The Minister denied doing anything improper.
B. The Minister denied that he would do anything improper.
C. The Minister refused to have done anything improper.
D. The Minister refused to do anything improper.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 29: We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they’ll arrive later.
A. If they arrive late, we’d better leave them a note.
B. We’d better leave them a note as they possibly arrive later.
C. They’ll probably arrive later so that we’d better leave them a note.
D. We’d better leave them a note in case they arrive later.
Question 30: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past.
A. In the past, women cover their heads but they do so today in some countries.
B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in th past.
C. Women still cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past.
D. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past.
Read the following passage adapted and choose the correct answer
(corresponding to A, B, C, or D) to each of the questions that follow.
Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful
this discovery has been. Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was
used to drive engines and was passed through pipes and radiators to warm rooms.
Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided power. Exploded in a
cylinder, it drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms
have not much adaptability. On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands
of ways. From the powerful voltages that drive our electric trains to the tiny current
needed to work a simple calculator, and from the huge electric magnet in steel works
that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are powered by
electricity. An electric current can be made with equal ease to heat a huge mass of
molten metal in a furnace or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee. Other than atomic energy,
which has not as yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the
world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task for which it is wanted. It travels so
easily and with incredible speed along wires or conductors that it can be supplied
instantly over vast distances. To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must
be turned. In Australia they use coal or water to drive this machinery. When dams are
built, falling water is used to drive the turbines without polluting the atmosphere with
smoke from coal. Atomic power is used in several countries but there is always the fear
of an accident. A tragedy once occurred at Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an atomic power
plant used to make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused many deaths through
radiation. Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful
effects to the environment. They may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays.
Most importantly, they hope to trap sunlight more efficiently. We do use solar heaters
for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the capacity of the solar cells to create
more current is necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable and the world
will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels.
Question 31: The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol
in the first paragraph to____.
A. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy
23


B. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity
C. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity
D. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy
Question 32: Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat
rooms?
A. Hot wind.
B. Steam.
C. Gas.
D.
Petrol.
Question 33: What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible?
A. It can be adapted to various uses.
B. It is cheap and easy to use.
C. It is used to drive motor engines.
D. It can be made with ease.
Question 34: The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia
are___________.
A. atomic power and water
B. water and coal
C. sunlight and wind power
D. wind and gas
Question 35: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to _________________.
A. new ways
B. harmful effects
C. scientists
D. the tides
Question 36: Electric magnets are used in steel works to _____________________.
A. boil a jug of water
B. test the steel for strength
C. lift heavy weights up to ten tons
D. heat the molten steel
Question 37: The best title for this passage could be___________.
A. “Why Electricity Is So Remarkable”
B. “Types of Power Plants”
C. “Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life”
D. “How to Produce Electricity”
Choose the word or phrase ( A, B, C or D ) that best fits the blank space in
the following passage.
When you first apply for a job, you (38) ______not succeed in getting it. It’s always a
good (39)______to ask them to explain to you what prevented from beating the other
candidates. Don’t complain about the situation, but ask them to advise you
(40)______what you can do better next time. Perhaps the interviewer disapproved of or
disagreed with something you said. Perhaps they just glanced at your application and
saw something that made it easy to choose between you and another candidate. Don’t
regard it as a failure, but recognize it as a chance to learn more. (41)______you don’t
worry too much about it and continue to believe in yourself, you’ll (42)______find the
chance you’ve been waiting for. Then, your family and friends will be able to
congratulate you on your success!
Question 38: A. might
B. would
C. won’t
D. must
Question 39: A. means
B. opinion
C. idea
D. method
Question 40: A. about
B. of
C. over
D. in
Question 41: A. As far as B. By far
C. So far
D. As long as
Question 42: A. in the end B. lastly
C. at last
D. eventually
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Bees, classified into over 10,000 species, are insects found in almost every part of
the world except the northernmost and southernmost regions. One commonly known
species is the honeybee, the only bee that produces honey and wax. Humans use the
wax in making candles, lipsticks, and other products, and they use the honey as a food.
While gathering the nectar and pollen with which they make honey, bees are
simultaneously helping to fertilize the flowers on which they land. Many fruits and
vegetables would not survive if bees did not carry the pollen from blossom to blossom.
24


Bees live in a structured environment and social structure within a hive, which is a
nest with storage space for the honey. The different types of bees each perform
a unique function. The worker bee carries nectar to the hive in a special stomach called
a honey stomach. Other workers make beeswax and shape it into a honeycomb, which
is a waterproof mass of six-sided compartments, or cells. The queen lays eggs in
completed cells. As the workers build more cells, the queen lays more eggs.
All workers, like the queen, are female, but the workers are smaller than the queen.
The male honeybees are called drones; they do no work and cannot sting. They are
developed from unfertilized eggs, and their only job is to impregnate a queen. The
queen must be fertilized in order to lay worker eggs. During the season when less
honey is available and the drones is of no further use, the workers block the drones
from eating the honey so that they will starve to death.
Question 43: Which of the following is the best title for this reading?
A. The Honeybee – Its Characteristics and Usefulness
B. The Many Species of Bees
C. The Useless Drone
D. Making Honey
Question 44: The word “species” in the first sentence probably means ______.
A. mates
B. killers
C. varieties
D. enemies
Question 45: It is stated in paragraph 2 that a hive is ________.
A. a type of honey
B. a storage space
C. a type of bee
D. a nest
Question 46: According to the passage, the drone ________.
A. collects less honey than workers
B. mates with the queen and has no other purpose
C. comes from eggs fertilized by other drones
D. can be male or female
Question 47: The author implies that __________.
A. drones are never females
B. bees are unnecessary in the
food chain
C. drones are completely dispensable D. the queen can be a worker
Question 48: According to the passage, honey is carried to the hive in a honey stomach
by the _____.
A. queens
B. drones
C. males
D. workers
Question 49: The word “They” in the last paragraph refers to _____.
A. workers
B. queens
C. honeybees
D. drones
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that beeswax is _________.
A. absorbent
B. complex in structure C. pliable
D. sweet

~~ THE END ~~

PRACTICE TEST 18
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions.
Question 1: A. employed B. called
C. expressed D. prepared
Question 2: A. although B. weather
C. healthy
D. themselves
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
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