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Keep calm and survive exams

English 12

PRACTICE TEST 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
following questions.
Question 1: A. reserved
B. locked
C. forced
Question 2: A. arrange
B. arise
C. area

word whose
each of the
D. touched
D. arrive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that

differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
following questions.
Question 3: A. company
B. atmosphere
C. customer
D.
employment
Question 4: A. reserve
B. schedule
C. wildlife
D. beauty
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: She_______ trying to pass her driving test but fails every time.
A. kept
B. keeps
C. had kept
D. is keeping
Question 6: There was a_________ table in the middle of the room.
A. Japanese round beautiful wooden
B. beautiful wooden round Japanese
C. beautiful wooden Japanese round
D. beautiful round Japanese wooden
Question 7: The world's biodiversity is declining at an unprecedented rate, which makes
wildlife ____.
A. prosperous
B. perfect
C. vulnerable
D. remained
Question 8: My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that ___ it is at night, ____ he plays
his music.
A. the less/ the more loud
B. the less/ less
C. the later/ the louder
D. the more late/ the more loudly
Question 9: He did not particularly want to _______ any competitive sport.
A. use up
B. do with
C. take up
D. go on


Question 10: It was cold and wet. _________, Paul put on his swimming suit and went to
the beach.
A. Although
B. Therefore
C. However
D. Because
Question 11: Did he tell you __________?
A. where could we meet him
B. we would be able to meet him where
C. where would be able to meet him
D. where we would meet him
Question 12: It’s _________to say that women are slaves at home.
A. rubbish
B. action
C. legality
D. truth
Question 13: John failed again. He _______ harder.
A. must have tried
B. should have tried
C. can tried
D. may have tried
Question 14: The majority of Asian students reject the American ________ that marriage is
a partnership of equals.
A. thought
B. look
C. view
D. attitude
Question 15: They'll be able to walk across the river_________.
A. if the ice will be thick enough
B. unless the ice is thick enough
C. if the ice is thick enough
D. when the ice will be thick enough

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English 12
Keep calm and survive exams
Question 16: The kind-hearted woman _______ all her life to helping the disabled and the
poor.
A. wasted
B. spent
C. dedicated
D. lived
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined
part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 17: The professor together with his three students have been called to court.
A
B
C
D
Question 18: My uncle has just bought some expensive furnitures for his new house.
A
B
C
D
Question 19: Women's movements work for the purpose of guaranteeing women the
enjoyment of
A
B
C
human rights and fundamental freedoms on a basis of equal with men.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Trang: "I live in Vietnam.”
Thomas: "______”
A. Whereabouts?
B. About where?
C. What is it about?
D. How about
in Hanoi?
Question 21: Minh: "My first English test was not as good as I expected"
Tom : "
_________."
A. Good Heavens!
B. Never mind, better job next time!
C. That's brilliant enough!
D. It's okay. Don't worry.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 22: They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.
A. cooperate
B. put together
C. separate
D. connect
Question 23: You should put yourself on the back for having achieved such a high
score in the graduation exam.
A. criticize yourself
B. wear a backpack
C. praise yourself D. check up your back
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 24: I was not aware of what was happening after I tripped and knocked my
head against the table.
A. careful
B. conscious
C. responsive
D.
cautious
Question 25: The kidnapper gave himself up to the authorities.
A. surrendered
B. confided himself
C. went up
D.
accommodated
himself
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
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Keep calm and survive exams

English 12

During the 19th century, women in the U.S organized and participated in a large
number of reform movements, including movements to reorganize the prison system,
improve education, ban the sale of alcohol, and most importantly to free slaves. Some
women saw similarities in the social status of women and slaves. Women like Elizabeth
Cady Stanton and Lucy Stone were feminists and abolitionists who supported the rights of
both women and blacks. A number of male abolitionists, including William Lloyd Garrison
and Wendell Phillips also supported the rights of women to speak and participate equally
with men in anti- slavery activities. Probably more than any other movement, abolitionism
offered women a previously denied entry into politics. They became involved primarily in
order to better their living conditions and the conditions of others.
When the Civil war ended in 1865, the 14th, and 15th, Amendments to the
Constitution adopted in 1868 and 1870 granted citizenship and suffrage to blacks but not
to women. Discouraged but resolved, feminists influenced more and more women to
demand the right to vote. In 1869, the Wyoming Territory had yielded to demands by
feminists, but eastern states resisted more stubbornly than ever before. A woman's
suffrage bill had been presented to every Congress since 1878 but it continually failed to
pass until 1920, when the 19th Amendment granted women the right to vote.
Question 26: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Women's suffrage
B. Abolitionists
C. The Wyoming Territory.
D. The 14th and 15th Amendment
Question 27: The word “ban” in line 2 most nearly means to_________.
A. encourage
B. publish
C. prohibit
D. limit
Question 28: What is not among the reformation movements of women?
A. reorganizing the prison
B. passing the laws
C. freeing the slaves
D. prohibiting the sale of alcohol
Question 29: According to the passage, why did women become active in politics?
A. to improve the conditions of life that existed at the time.
B. to support Elizabeth Cady Stanton C. to amend the Declaration of Independence
D. to be elected to public office.
Question 30: The word "primarily" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning
to_________.
A. somewhat
B. above all
C. always
D. finally
Question 31: What does the 19th Amendment guarantee?
A. Citizenship for women
B. Citizenship for blacks
C. Voting rights for women
D. Voting rights for blacks
Question 32: When were women allowed to vote throughout the US?
A. After 1920
B. After 1878
C. After 1870
D. After
1866
Question 33: What cannot be inferred from the passage?
A. The blacks were given the right to vote before women.
B. The abolitionists believed in anti- slavery activities.
C. A women's suffrage bill had been discussed in the Congress for 50 years.
D. The eastern states did not like the idea of women's right to vote.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered
blanks.

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Keep calm and survive exams

English 12

We know that there is no life on Mars. The Viking robot missions to the Red Planet
proved that. The mission was (34)_____to one man for the most part. Percival Lowell, a rich
American businessman, suggested that Mars contained life. He was fascinated by Mars.
He spent 23 years studying it. He was so (35)______involved in the search for Martian life
that he built his own laboratory. It housed a huge telescope. At 7,000 feet (2.13km)
(36)______sea level in a dry climate, it was a perfect site to view Mars. Lowell believed that
he saw a network of lines (37)______Mars. He also thought that the lines were built by
intelligent life. There was also the chance that water was on the planet. He drew many
maps in his notebooks. His idea (38)______the public's attention. People soon believed that
life on Mars could exist.
Question 34: A. due
B. because
C. except
D. instead
Question 35: A. deep
B. deeply
C. depth
D. deepen
Question 36: A. on
B. over
C. above
D. up
Question 37: A. cross
B. crossing
C. to cross
D. crossed
Question 38: A. made
B. achieved
C. absorbed
D. drew
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living
things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of
flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities
of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the
desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable
to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist
there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer,
the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed
running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal,
silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated.
Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere
else in the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and
physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the
midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning
hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by
night. The surface of the sun baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18
inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 39: The title for this passage could be
.
A. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment”
B. “Desert Plants”
C. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”
D. “Life Underground”
Question 40: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means
.
A. “the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own”
B. “the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants”
C. “collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants”
D. “very small living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants”
Question 41: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the
desert, as
.
A. water is an essential part of his existence
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English 12
Keep calm and survive exams
B. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
C. very few lager animals are found in the desert
D. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
Question 42: According to the passage, creatures in the desert
.
A. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
B. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
C. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest
D. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest
Question 43: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert
animals EXCEPT
.
A. they dig home underground
B. they sleep during the day
C. they are watchful and quiet
D. they are noisy and aggressive
Question 44: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert
is that
A. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees
C. they live in an accommodating environment
D. they are less healthy than animals living in other places
Question 45: We can infer from the passage that
.
A. desert life is colorful and diverse
B. living things adjust to their environment
C. healthy animals live longer lives
D. water is the basis of desert life
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that
is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: The police questioned two men but neither of them could speak English.
A. The police questioned two Englishmen in English.
B. The police questioned two men who could not speak English.
C. Neither of the Englishmen was questioned by the police.
D. Either of the men could answer the police questions in English.
Question 47: Living in Sydney is strange to her.
A. She’s not used to live in Sydney.
B. She’s not used to living in Sidney.
C. She used to live in Sydney.
D. She is used living in Sydney.
Question 48: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days, Jasmine”
A. Jasmine’s doctor insisted that she should rest for a few days.
B. the doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.
C. It is doctor’s recommendation that Jasmine rested shortly.
D. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days’ rest.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that
best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to
repair it.
A. My motorbike cannot start in the mornings, so I will have it repaired.
B. My motorbike which I will have it repaired cannot start in the morning.
C. My motorbike which I will get it repaired cannot start in the mornings.
D. My motorbike I will get it repaired which cannot start in the mornings.

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Question 50: Sue and Brian met. Shortly after that, he announced they were getting
married.
A. As soon as Sue and Brian met, they announced they were getting married.
B. Right at the time Brian met Sue, he announced they were getting married.
C. Scarcely had Sue and Brian met when he announced they were getting married.
D. Until Sue and Brian met, they had announced they were getting married.
_________THE END__________

PRACTICE TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 1. A. included
B. wanted
C. decided
D. noticed
Question 2. A. allow
B. tomorrow
C. slowly
D. below
Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose main stress differs from the rest.
Question 3. A. struggle
B. survive
C. enlarge
D.
occur
Question 4. A. reliable
B. conventional
C. preservative
D.
intellectual
Identify the underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the
sentence to be corrected
Question 5: These exercises look easy, but they are very relatively difficult for us.
A
B
C
D
Question 6: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time.
A
B
C
D
Question 7: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been
proved.
A
B
C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following questions
Question 8: Kay: “I wouldn’t do that if I were you.” John: “____________”
A. Wouldn’t you? Why?
B. Would you, really?
C. I’d rather you didn’t.
D. It’s out of the question.
Question 9: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!”
Sue: “__________”
A. Don’t mention it.
B. How dare you? C. I’m afraid so.
D. Thank you.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 10: I hope to have the privilege of working with them again.
A. honor
B. advantage
C. favor
D. right
Question 11: Everything was in a thorough mess.
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English 12
A. utter

Keep calm and survive exams
B. full

C. complete

D. appalling

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or
phrase that is OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined part in each of the following
questions.
Question 12: His extravagant ideas were never brought to fruition.
A. impressive
B. exaggerated
C. unacceptable
D. practical
Question 13: This shouldn’t be too taxing for you.
A. comfortable
B. demanding
C. easy
D. relaxing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer in each of the following
questions.
Question 14: We bought some_________.
A. German lovely old glasses
B. German old lovely glasses
C. lovely old German glasses
D. old lovely German glasses
Question 15: This is the third time James__________ the volunteer program to the village.
A. joins
B. joined
C. has joined
D. has been joining
Question 16: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is,________.
A. the more heat it retains
B. the heat it retains more
C. it retains the more heat
D. more heat it retains
Question 17: The pool should not be made so deep________ small children can be safe
there.
A. so as to
B. though
C. if
D. so that
Question 18: Standing on the tip of the cape, _________.
A. people have seen a lighthouse far away
B. a lighthouse can see from the
distance
C. we can see the lighthouse in the distance
D. lies a lighthouse in the middle of the
sea
Question 19: Deborah is going to take extra lessons to ___ what she missed when she
was away.
A. catch up on
B. put up with
C. cut down on
D. take up with
Question 20: I am sorry I have no time at present to _____ detail of our plan.
A. bring in
B. come in
C. take into
D. go into
Question 21: In spite of her abilities, Laura has been _____ overlooked for promotion.
A. repetitive
B. repeatedly
C. repetition
D. repeat
Question 22: The criminal knows the ________ of successful robberies.
A. trash and treasure B. part and parcel
C. ins and outs
D. close all
Question 23: Don’t_________ the kettle; it’s still hot.
A. touch
B. feel
C. look
D. taste
Question 24: Policemen are sometimes on_________ at night.
A. force
B. alert
C. cover
D. patrol
Question 25: George won five medals at the competition. His parents_________ very
proud of him
A. can’t be
B. can’t have
C. must have been D. could have
been

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English 12
Keep calm and survive exams
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
New surveys suggest that the technological tools we use to make our lives easier are
killing our leisure time. We are working longer hours, taking fewer and shorter vacations
(and when we do go away, we take our cell phones, PDAs, and laptops along). And, we are
more stressed than ever as increased use of e-mail, voice mail, cell phones, and the
Internet is destroying any idea of privacy and leisure.
Since the Industrial Revolution, people have assumed that new labor-saving devices
would free them from the burdens of the workplace and give them more time to grow
intellectually, creatively, and socially – exploring the arts, keeping up with current events,
spending more time with friends and family, and even just ‘goofing off’.
But here we are at the start of the 21 st century, enjoying one of the greatest
technological boom times in human history, and nothing could be further from the truth.
The very tools that were supposed to liberate us have bound us to our work and study in
ways that were inconceivable just a few years ago. It would seem that technology almost
never does what we expect.
In ‘the old days’, the lines between work and leisure time were markedly clearer. People
left their offices at a predictable time, were often completely disconnected from and out of
touch with their jobs as they traveled to and from work, and were off-duty once they were
home. That is no longer true. In today’s highly competitive job market, employers demand
increased productivity, expecting workers to put in longer hours and to keep in touch
almost constantly via fax, cell phones, e-mail, or other communications devices. As a
result, employees feel the need to check in on what is going on at the office, even on days
off. They feel pressured to work after hours just to catch up on everything they have to
do. Workers work harder and longer, change their work tasks more frequently, and have
more and more reasons to worry about job security.
Bosses, colleagues, family members, lovers, and friends expect instant responses to
voice mail and e-mail messages. Even college students have become bound to their desks
by an environment in which faculty, friends, and other members of the college community
increasingly do their work online. Studies of time spent on instant messaging services
would probably show staggering use.
This is not what technology was supposed to be doing for us. New technologies, from
genetic research to the Internet, offer all sorts of benefits and opportunities. But, when
new tools make life more difficult and stressful rather than easier and more meaningful –
and we are, as a society, barely conscious of it – then something has gone seriously awry,
both with our expectations for technology and our understanding of how it should benefit
us. From “Summit 1” by Joan Saslow & Allen Ascher
Question 26: According to the first three paragraphs, technological tools that were
designed to make
A. have brought us complete happiness
B. have fully met our expectations
C. have not interfered with our privacy
D. have turned out to do us more harm
than good
Question 27: Which of the following is NOT true about technological tools, according to
new surveys?
A. They make our life more stressful.
B. They bring more leisure to our life.
C. They are used even during vacations. D. They are being increasingly used.
Question 28: The word “inconceivable” in the passage is closest in meaning to”______”.
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English 12
Keep calm and survive exams
A. unforgettable
B. unimaginable
C. predictable
D. foreseeable
Question 29: It can be inferred from the fourth paragraph that__________.
A. it is compulsory that employees go to the office, even on days off
B. employees have more freedom to decide what time they start and finish work
C. employers are more demanding and have efficient means to monitor employees
D. life is more relaxing with cell phones and other technological devices
Question 30: The word “They” in the fourth paragraph refers to__________.
A. employers
B. employees
C. workers
D. tasks
Question 31: This passage has probably been taken from__________.
A. a science review
B. a political journal
C. an advertisement
D. a fashion
magazine
Question 32: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Expectations and Plain Reality
B. Benefits of Technology
C. Research on the Roles of Computers
D. Changes at the Workplace
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry
uses 816 million pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast
cereal each year. If (33)________ end to end, the empty cereal boxes from one year’s
consumption would stretch to the moon and back. One point three (1.3) million
advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n)
(34)________ of $762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more
money on television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal.
(35)________ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar
and some contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their
marketing, making many cereals appear much healthier than they really are by
“fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, lovely - you now have vitamin-fortified
sugar!
Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how (36)________ sugar
appears on the ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel.
There are actually only a small handful of national commercially-branded cereals that
are made (37)________ whole grains and are sugar-free.
From “Foods That Burn Fat, Foods That Turn to Fat” by Tom Ventulo

Question
Question
expense
Question
Question
Question

33: A. to lay
34: A. charge

B. laying
B. average

C. lay

D. laid

35: A. Most
36: A. tall
37: A. by

B. Mostly
B. large
B. from

C. Almost
C. high
C. at

C. cost

D.
D. Furthermost
D. many
D. in

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety.
Instead, critics of globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be
changed. The debate over globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the
global economy so that its advantages can grow while its problems can be solved.
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On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers
to international trade and investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently
and giving consumers greater freedom of choice. With free-market globalization,
investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich countries to the developing
countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced taxes make
goods produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain
by selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows
ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others.
On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as
producing greater poverty, inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and
environmental damage. They say that the most developed nations – the United States,
Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but because of protectionism
and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of South Korea,
Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow neoliberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries” – that
is, industries that are just beginning to develop – enables a country to become
internationally competitive.
Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the
inflow and outflow of money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent
bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up
domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot sustain such
expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country.
Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed
against globalization itself but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and
the environment. The question raised by nongovernmental organizations and protesters at
WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result in a rise of living standards or
a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards and
undermining environmental regulations.
One of the key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent
markets should be regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair
distribution of public goods on a global scale.
From “Globalization” by Tabb, William K., Microsoft ® Student 2009 [DVD]

Question 38: It is stated in the passage that_________.
A. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself
B. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries
C. suppoters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers
D. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia
Question 39: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that__________.
A. consumers can benefit from cheaper products
B. there will be less competition among producers
C. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased
D. investment will be allocated only to rich countries
Question 40: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means “___________”.
A. removed
B. solved
C. offered
D. distributed
Question 41: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means
“_________”.

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Keep calm and survive exams
A. makes sellers responsive to any changes
B. allows sellers to stand on their
own feet
C. forces sellers to go bare-footed
D. prevents sellers from selling new
products
Question 42: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have
become rich because of__________.
A. their neo-liberal policies
B. their help to developing countries
C. their prevention of bubbles
D. their protectionism and subsidies
Question 43: Infant industries mentioned in the passage are__________.
A. successful economies
B. young companies
C. development strategies
D. young industries
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.
B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.
C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.
D. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.
Question 45: The debate over globalization is about how__________.
A. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries
C. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization
B. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community
D. to terminate globalization in its entirely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that
is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 46: Sam speaks Chinese well and his Japanese is good, too.
A. Sam is good at either Chinese or Japanese.
B. Not only Chinese but also Japanese Sam is good at.
C. Not only does Sam speak Chinese but also Japanese.
D. Sam not only speaks Chinese well but also is good at Japanese.
Question 47: It’s a bad line. Do you want me to give you a ring later?
A. Can I call you later?
B. I would like to give you a ring as a present.
C. Would you like to become my wife?
D. Can I give the ring back to you later?
Question 48: Had she read the reference books, she would have been able to finish the
test.
A. If she had read the reference books, she could finish the test.
B. Not having read the reference books, she couldn’t finish the test.
C. Although she didn’t read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
D. Because she read the reference books, she was able to finish the test.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that
best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they’ll arrive later.
A. If they arrive late, we’d better leave them a note.
B. We’d better leave them a note as they possibly arrive later.
C. They’ll probably arrive later so that we’d better leave them a note.
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D. We’d better leave them a note in case they arrive later.
Question 50: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past.
A. In the past, women cover their heads but they do so today in some countries.
B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in the past.
C. Women still cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past.
D. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past.
_______THE END________

PRACTICE TEST 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions
Question 1. A. knowledge
B. towards
C. forward
D. award
Question 2. A. laughed
B. ploughed
C. coughed
D.
disliked
Choose one word whose main stress pattern is different from the others.
Question 3. A. application
B. advisable
C. denial
D. adventure
Question 4. A. volunteer
B. competition
C. advantage
D.
capability
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part
that needs correction.
Question 5. The purpose of the United Nations, broadly speaking, is to maintain peace
and security and encourage respect for human rights.
A. broadly speaking
B. security
C. encourage
D. human rights
Question 6: Being sick is the ultimate weapon that some children use so that to get their
parents' attention and to make sure that their demands are met.
A. Being sick
B. that
C. so that to
D. to make sure
Question 7: Not only the number of mahogany trees has decreased markedly during the
last decade, but other valuable trees are becoming scarcer and scarcer as well.
A. the number of mahogany trees has
B. markedly
C. are becoming
D. scarcer and scarcer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 8. Most of the school-leavers are sanguine about the idea of going to work and
earning money.
A. fearsome
B. expected
C. excited
D. optimistic
Question 9. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. from time to time
B. time after time C. again and again D. very rapidly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 10. The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.
A. look down on
B. put up with
C. take away from
D. give on to
Question 11. I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.
A. unplanned
B. deliberate
C. accidental
D. unintentional

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Choose the answer that best fits the blank in each sentence or substitutes for
the underlined words or phrases.
Question 12. Anne was not________ to think that the test was too difficult.
A. who
B. the one who
C. the only one
D. among the people
Question 13. The teacher always________ that the student make an outline before writing
the complete essay.
A. reports
B. tells
C. says
D.
recommends
Question 14. Education in many countries is compulsory________ the age of 16.
A. for
B. forwards
C. until
D. when
Question 15. Helen is________ seafood, so she never tries these delicious dishes.
A. allergic to
B. tired of
C. keen on
D. preferable to
Question 16. ________ one day by a passing car, the dog never walked proper again.
A. Having injured
B. Injuring
C. Injured
D. To be injured
Question 17. Poor management brought the company to ___________of collapse.
A. the edge
B. the foot
C. the ring
D. the brink
Question 18. It never ___________ his mind that his dishonesty would be discovered.
A. crossed
B. came
C. spunk
D. passed
Question 19. The doctors are examining the dog________ the child for rabies, which is a
dangerous disease________ immediate treatment
A. biting/ required
B. bitten/ required C. bitten/ requiring D. biting/ requiring
Question 20. She asked me________ I was looking at.
A. if
B. what
C. when
D. why
Question 21. The reason why this game attracts so many youngster is that________ other
video games, this one is far more interesting.
A. comparing to
B. in compared with
C. on comparison to
D. in
comparison with
Question 22. Gale-force winds caused destruction________ the buildings________ the
seafront.
A. to / along
B. of / in
C. for / by
D. with / on
Question 23. Human carelessness has been________ damaging marine life.
A. accused of
B. prevented
C. said to
D. warned against
Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the
following questions
What we today call American folk art was, indeed, art of, by, and for ordinary, everyday
"folks" who, with increasing prosperity and leisure, created a market for art of all kinds,
and especially for portraits. Citizens of prosperous, essentially middle-class republics whether ancient Romans, seventeenth-century Dutch burghers, or nineteenth-century
Americans - have always shown a marked taste for portraiture. Starting in the late
eighteenth century, the United States contained increasing numbers of such people, and
of the artists who could meet their demands.
The earliest American folk art portraits come, not surprisingly, from New England ─
especially Connecticut and Massachusetts - for this was a wealthy and populous region
and the center of a strong craft tradition. Within a few decades after the signing of the
Declaration of Independence in 1776, the population was pushing westward, and portrait
painters could be found at work in western New York, Ohio, Kentucky, Illinois, and Missouri.
Midway through its first century as a nation, the United States' population had increased
roughly five times, and eleven new states had been added to the original thirteen. During
these years the demand for portraits grew and grew, eventually to be satisfied by the
camera. In 1839 the daguerreotype was introduced to America, ushering in the age of
photography, and within a generation the new invention put an end to the popularity of
painted portraits. Once again an original portrait became a luxury, commissioned by the
wealthy and executed by the professional.
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English 12

But in the heyday of portrait painting - from the late eighteenth century until the
1850's - anyone with a modicum of artistic ability could become a limner, as such a
portraitist was called. Local craftspeople - sign, coach, and house painters - began to paint
portraits as a profitable sideline; sometimes a talented man or woman who began by
sketching family members gained a local reputation and was besieged with requests for
portraits; artists found it worth their while to pack their paints, canvases, and brushes
and to travel the countryside, often combining house decorating with portrait painting.
Question 24. In lines 3-4 the author mentions seventeenth-century Dutch burghers as an
example of a group that_________.
A. consisted mainly of self-taught artists B. appreciated portraits
C. influenced American folk art
D. had little time for the arts
Question 25. According to the passage, where were many of the first American folk art
portraits painted?
A. In western New York
B. In Illinois and Missouri
C. In Connecticut and Massachusetts
D. In Ohio
Question 26. The word this in the second paragraph refers to_________.
A. a craft tradition
B. American folk art
C. New England
D. western New York
Question 27. How much did the population of the United State increase in the first fifty
years following independence?
A. It became three times larges
B. It became five times larger
C. It became eleven times larger
D. It became thirteen times larger
Question 28. The phrase ushering in in the second paragraph is closest meaning
to_________.
A. beginning
B. demanding
C. publishing
D. increasing
Question 29. According to the passage, which of the following contributed to a decline in
the demand for painted portraits?
A. The lack of a strong craft tradition
B. The preference for landscape
paintings
C. The westward migration of many painters
D. The invention of the camera
Question 30. The phrase worth their while in the third paragraph is closest in meaning
to_______.
A. essential
B. educational
C. profitable
D. pleasurable
Read the passage and choose the best option to fill in each gap
If you're an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It
has become a symbol of our wasteful, throw- away society. But there seems little doubt it
is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous ( 31)________
even environmental evil- it's the way society chooses to uses and ( 32)________ them.
Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coalnon-renewable natural (33)_______. We import well over three million tons of the stuff in
Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high proportion of our
annual consumption is in the form of packaging, and this constitutes about seven per cent
by weight of our domestic refuse. Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is,
though the plastic recycling (34)________ is growing fast. The plastics themselves are
extremely energy-rich- they have a higher calorific vatue than coal and one (35)________ of
"recovery" strongly favored by the plastic manufacturers is the conversion of waste plastic
into a fuel.
Question 31. A. savings
B. pleasures
C. benefits
D. profits
Question 32. A. abuse
B. endanger
C. store
D. dispose
Question 33. A. processes
B. resources
C. products
D. fuels
Question 34. A. industry
B. manufacture
C. plant
D. factory
Question 35. A. medium
B. method
C. measure
D. mechanism

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Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the
following questions
No educational medium better serves as a means of spatial communication than the
atlas. Atlases deal with such invaluable information as population distribution and density.
One of the best, Pennycooke's World Atlas, has been widely accepted as a standard owing
to the quality of its maps and photographs, which not only show various settlements but
also portray them in a variety of scales. In fact, the very first map in the atlas is a
cleverly designed population cartogram that projects the size of each country if
geographical size were proportional to population. Following the proportional layout, a
sequence of smaller maps shows the world's population density, each country's birth and
death rates, population increase or decrease, industrialization, urbanization, gross
national product in term of per capita income, the quality of medical care, literacy, and
language. To give readers a perspective on how their own country fits in with the global
view, additional projections depict the world's patterns in nutrition, calorie and protein
consumption, health care, number of physicians per unit of population, and life
expectancy by region. Population density maps on a subcontinental scale, as well as
political maps, convey the diverse demographic phenomena of the world in a broad array
of scales.
Question 36. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The educational benefits of atlases
B. Physical maps in an atlas
C. The ideal in the making of atlases
D. Partial maps and their uses
Question 37. According to the passage, the first map in Pennycooke's World Atlas
shows_________.
A. the population policy in each country B. the hypothetical sizes of each country
C. geographical proportions of each country
D. national boundaries relative to
population
Question 38. The word cleverly in the passage is closest in meaning to____.
A. clearly
B. immaculately
C. intelligently
D.
accurately
Question 39. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Calorie consumption
B. Currency exchange rates
C. A level of educations
D. Population decline
Question 40. The word layout in the passage refers to_________.
A. the cartogram
B. the geographical size C. population
D.
each
country
Question 41. The phrase in term of used in the passage is closest in meaning
to_________.
A. for considering aspects B. in spite of
C. with a view to D. in regard to
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that maps can be used to_________.
A. pinpoint ethnic strife in each country
B. identify a shortage of qualified labour
C. give readers a new perspective in their own country
D. show readers photographs in a new form
Question 43. The word convey in the passage is closest meaning to_________.
A. devise
B. conjure up
C. demonstrate
D. indicate
Choose the sentence that is similar in meaning to the given one.
Question 44. The president offered his congratulations to the players when they won the
cup.
A. The President congratulated that the players had won the cup.
B. When they won the cup, the players had been offered some congratulations from the
President.
C. The President would offered the players congratulations if they won the match.
D. The President congratulated the players on their winning the match.
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Question 45. A house in that district will cost at least $ 100,000.
A. If you have $ 100,000, you can buy a house in that district.
B. $ 100,000 is the maximum price for a house in that district.
C. You won't be able to buy a house in that district for more than $ 100,000.
D. You won't be able to buy a house in that district for less than $ 100,000.
Question 46. To get to work on time, they have to leave at 6.00 a.m.
A. They always leave for work at 6.00 a.m.
B. Getting to work on time, for them, means leaving at 6.00 am
C. They have to leave very early to catch a bus to work.
D. Leaving at 6.00 am, they have never been late for work.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following exchanges
Question 47. “If only I hadn’t lent him all my money!” -“_____________”
A. Well, you did, so it’s no use crying over spilt milk. B. You will be OK.
C. Sorry, I have no idea.
D. I’m afraid you will have to do it.
Question 48. "Would you like another coffee?" - "__________________"
A. I'd love one
B. Willingly
C. Very kind of your part D. It's a pleasure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that
is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 49: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an
imitation. It greatly resembled the original.
A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
B. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but
not for the experts.
C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic,
though the experts could judge it quite easily.
D. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it
wasn't genuine.
Question 50: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
C. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business
_______THE END_______

PRACTICE TEST 4
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. confine
B. conceal
C. convention
D.
concentrate
Question 2: A. booked
B. missed
C. described
D. pronounced
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. capture
B. picture
C. ensure
D. pleasure
Question 4: A. particular B. environment
C. advertisement D. circumstances

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions from 6 to 24.
Question 5: “It is very hot in here.___________”
“Of course”
A. Must you open the window
B. Shall you open the window
C. Could you open the window
D . A or C
Question 6: When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to _______
their houses.
A. do up
B. do in
C. do through
D. do over
Question 7: My director is angry with me . I didn't do all the work I ________ last week.
A. should have done B. may have done C. need to have done
D. must have done
Question 8: The boy _________went to the hospital to ask for doctor's help.
A. whose sick sister B. whose sister sicked
C. who his sister is sick
D. whose
sister was sick
Question 9:__________the phone rang later that night did Tom remember the appoinment.
A. No sooner
B. Only
C. Not until
D. Just before
Question 10: __________is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals
and plants which make a balanced environment..
A. extinction
B. biodiversity
C. habitat
D. conservation
Question 11: He managed to keep his job_________the manager had threatened to sack
him.
A. therefore
B. Although
C. unless
D. despite
Question 12: It’s essential that every student ________ all the lectures.
A. attends
B. attend
C. has attended
D. attended
Question 13: You have to move this box to __________ the new television set.
A. lose touch with
B. make room for C. pay attention to
D. take notice of
Question 14: It’s a secret. You _________ let anyone know about it.
A. mustn’t
B. needn’t
C. mightn’t
D. may not
Question 15: The singer was _______________ on the piano by her sister.
A. discarded
B. accompanied
C. performed
D. played
Question 16: It is possible ______ may assist some trees in saving water in the winter.
A. to lose leaves
B. that the loss of leaves
C. the leaves are lost
D. when leaves have lost
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following questions.
Question 17: - Kate: “ How lovely your cats are!”
- David: “ ____________”
A. Really? They are
B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so
C. Can you say it again
D. I love them, too
Question 18: " Would you like another coffee?"- "__________________"
A. I'd love one
B. Willingly
C. Very kind of your part D.
It's
a
pleasure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or
phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the
following questions.
Question 19: We went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out.

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Keep calm and survive exams
A. every single dayB. every other day C. every second day
D. every two
days
Question 20: We can use either verbal or non – verbal forms of communication.
A. using gesture B. using speech
C. using verbs
D.
using
facial
expressions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 21: The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.
A. look down on
B. put up with
C. take away from
D. give on
to
Question 22: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.
A. unplanned
B. deliberate
C. accidental
D. unintentional
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part
that needs correction.
Question 23: Although not widely sold, that book is considered to be best book on the
subject.
A
B
C
D
Question 24: Because his sickness he didn’t take part in the English competition held last
Sunday.
A
B
C
D
Question 25: I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in
the end.
A
B
C
D
Read the following passage and mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered
blanks.
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at
night but can’t find the energy to get out of bed (26) _______ for school? According to a
new report, today’s generation of children are in danger of getting so (27)_______ sleep
that they are putting their mental and physical health at (28)_______. Adults can easily
survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (29)______teenagers require nine or ten
hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (30)______ anything between
two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.
By Tim Falla and Paul A.Davies, Solutions Advanced. OUP

Question
Question
Question
Question
Question

26:
27:
28:
29:
30:

A.
A.
A.
A.
A.

behind time B.
few
B.
jeopardy
B.
or
B.
puts
B.

about time
less
threat
because
gets

C.
C.
C.
C.
C.

in time
much
risk
whereas
brings

D.
D.
D.
D.

at time
little
danger
so
D. makes

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Why is it that flying to New York from London will leave you feeling less tired than flying
to London from New York? The answer may be a clear case of biology not being able to
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keep up with technology. Deep inside the brain there is a “clock” that governs every
aspect of the body’s functioning: sleep and wake cycles, levels of alertness, performance,
mood, hormone levels, digestion, body temperature and so on. It regulates all of these
functions on a 24-hour basis and is called the circadian clock (from the Latin, circa “about”
+dies “day”).
This body clock programmes us to be sleepy twice a day, between 3-5 a.m and again
between 3-5 p.m. Afternoon tea and siesta times are all cultural responses to our natural
biological sleepiness in the afternoon. One of the major causes of the travelers’ malady
known as jet lag is the non-alignment of a person’s internal body clock with clocks in the
external world. Crossing different time zones confuses the circadian clock, which then has
to adjust to the new time and patterns of light and activity. To make matters more
complex, not all internal body functions adjust at the same rate. So your sleep/wake may
adjust to a new time zone at one rate, while your temperature adjusts at a different pace.
Your digestion may be on a different schedule altogether.
Though we live in a 24-hour day, the natural tendency of the body clock is to extend
our day beyond 24 hours. It is contrary to our biological programming to shrink our day.
That is why travelling in a westward direction is more body-clock friendly than flying east.
NASA studies of long haul pilots showed that westward travel was associated with
significantly better sleep quantity and quality than eastward flights. When flying west, you
are “extending” your day, thus travelling in the natural direction of your internal clock.
Flying eastward will involve “shrinking” or reducing your day and is in direct opposition to
your internal clock’s natural tendency.
One of the more common complaints of travelers is that their sleep becomes disrupted.
There are many reasons for this: Changing time zones and schedules, changing light and
activity levels, trying to sleep when your body clock is programmed to be awake,
disruption of the internal circadian clock and working longer hours. Sleep loss, jet lag and
fatigue can seriously affect our ability to function well. Judgment and decision-making can
be reduced by 50%, attention by 75 percent, memory by 20 percent and communication
by 30 percent. It is often suggested that you adjust your watch as soon as you board a
plane, supposedly to try to help you adjust to your destination’s schedule as soon as you
arrive. But it can take the body clock several days to several weeks to fully adjust to a new
time zone.
Question 31: The main function of the body clock is to_________
A. govern all the body’s responses.
B. regulate the body’s functions.
C. help us sleep.
D. help us adapt to a 24-hour cycle.
Question 32: The word “It” refers to_________
A. the programme B. the body clock C. the function
D. the brain
Question 33: The word “malady” is closest in meaning to
A. illness
B. bore
C. thought
D. feeling
Question 34: The direction you fly in_________
A. helps you sleep better.
B. alters your body’s natural rhythms.
C. affects the degree of jet lag.
D. extends or shrinks your body clock.
Question 35: According to the article, _________
A. various factors stop us sleeping when we fly.
B. travelers complain about the negative effects of flying.
C. flying seriously affects your judgment and decision-making.
D. jet lag can affect different abilities differently.
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Question 36: On the subject of avoiding jet lag the article_________
A. makes no suggestion
B. says there is nothing you can do.
C. proposes gradually adjusting your body clock.
D. suggests changing the time on
your watch.
Question 37: According to the author, which of the following reasons disrupt travelers’
sleep?
A. Travelers try to sleep between 3-5 p.m.
B. Travelers’ attention is reduced by 75 percent.
C. The traveler’s internal circadian clock has to adjust to patterns of light and activity.
D. Travelers fly in the natural direction of their internal clock.
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that_________
A. travelers have to spend more money flying westward than eastward.
B. there are more travelers in westward flights than in eastward ones.
C. westward travelers become friendlier than eastward ones.
D. travelers do not sleep as well in eastward flights as in westward ones.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that
is closest in meaning to each of the following questions
Question 39: The president offered his congratulations to the players when they won the
cup.
A. The President congratulated that the players had won the cup.
B. When they won the cup, the players had been offered some congratulations from the
President.
C. The President would offered the players congratulations if they won the match.
D. The President congratulated the players on their winning the match.
Question 40: A house in that district will cost at least $ 100,000.
A. If you have $ 100,000, you can buy a house in that district.
B. $ 100,000 is the maximum price for a house in that district.
C. You won't be able to buy a house in that district for more than $ 100,000.
D. You won't be able to buy a house in that district for less than $ 100,000.
Question 41: To get to work on time, they have to leave at 6.00 a.m.
A. They always leave for work at 6.00 a.m.
B. Getting to work on time, for them, means leaving at 6.00 am
C. They have to leave very early to catch a bus to work .
D. Leaving at 6.00 am, they have never been late for work.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid
material such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain
temperatures. Also, some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when
molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to
how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least
one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and
they are now strictly ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what are known as a sea
of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively charged they attract the ions and this is
what keeps the structure together.
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An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons
are free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical
energy such as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current
flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors of
electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to
encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of
carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons
that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance
like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to create a current but only when
those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved in water. In
its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions
cannot flow.
Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either,
because they contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do
not flow easily. Water itself is a poor conductor or electricity as it does not contain a
significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly
charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter does
contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of
the problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the
ever-present salt that is left on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water
to make it more conductive.
By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie. Science for Primary School Teacher. OUP

Question 42: Electrical conductivity is
.
A. one of the most important properties of metals
B. one of the key properties of most solid materials
C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water
D. completely impossible for silicon
Question 43: The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means
.
A. the lightest B. nearest to the inside C. furthest from the inside
D. the heaviest
Question 44: The atoms of a metal can bond together because
.
A. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons
C. they lose all of electrons
B. electrons can flow in a single direction
D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions
Question 45: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to
.
A. charged ions
B. electric currents
C. charged particles
D.
electrical insulators
Question 46: Water is a poor conductor because it contains
.
A. no positive or negative electric charge B. only a small amount of fully charged
particles
C. only a positive electric charge
D. only a negative electric charge
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.
B. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.
C. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.
D. Some materials are more conductive than others.
Question 48: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
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English 12
A. Electrical Energy B. Electrical Devices
Conductivity

Keep calm and survive exams
C. Electrical Insulators D. Electrical

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that
best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an
imitation. It greatly resembled the original.
A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
B. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not
for the experts.
C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic,
though the experts could judge it quite easily.
D. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it
wasn't genuine.
Question 50: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
C. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much
business
_________THE END________

PRACTICE TEST 5
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the others in the group.
Question 1: A. honest
B. home
C. vehicles
D. heiress
Question 2: A. books
B. carrots
C. floors
D. slopes
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following
word.
Question 3: A. company
B. atmosphere
C. customer
D. employment
Question 4: A. institution B. university
C. preferential
D. indicative
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 5: In most countries, compulsory military service does not apply to women.
A. superior
B. mandatory
C. beneficial
D. constructive
Question 6: The kidnapper gave himself up to the authorities.
A. surrendered
B. confided himself C. went up
D. accommodated himself
Question 7: The famous racehorse Secretariat had to be destroyed because of a painful,
incurable hoof disease.
A. irreparable
B. vexatious
C. dangerous
D. disabling
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the italic part in each of the following questions.
Question 8: The earth is being threatened and the future looks bad.
A. done
B. made
C. defended
D. varied
Question 9: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest.
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English 12
A. hungry

Keep calm and survive exams
B. poor

C. rich

D full

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the following questions
Question 10: When friends insist on____________ expensive gifts, it makes most people
uncomfortable.
A. them to accept
B. they accepting C. their accepting
D. they accept
Question 11: John lost the____________ bicycle he bought last week and his parents were
very angry with him because of his carelessness.
A. beautiful Japanese blue new
B. beautiful new blue Japanese
C. new beautiful blue Japanese
D. Japanese beautiful new blue
Question 12: Dr. Evans has____________ a valuable contribution to the life of the school.
A. done
B. created
C. caused
D. made
Question 13: Last year she earned____________ her brother.
A. twice as much as B. twice more than C. twice as many as
D. twice as
more as
Question 14: - Linda: “I've passed my driving test." - Peter: “_________________”
A. Congratulations!
B. That's a good idea
C. It's nice of you to say so.
D. Do
you?
Question 15: ____________ the storm, the ship couldn't reach its destination on time.
A. Because of
B. In case of
C. In spite of
D. But for
Question 16: - Lan: "Happy birthday! This is a small present for you."
- Nga:
“______________”
A. What a pity!
B. How terrible!
C. Have a good time!
D. How beautiful it is!
Thanks.
Question 17: Western women are more____________ than Asian women
A. depend
B. independent
C. independently
D. dependent
Question 18: Shy people often find difficult to__________ group discussion.
A. take part in
B. get on with
C. take place in
D. get in touch with
Question 19: They asked me a lot of questions, __________ I couldn't answer.
A. much of which
B. both of them
C. neither of which
D. most of
which
Question 20: I walked away as calmly as I could. ____________ , they would have thought I
was a thief.
A. In case
B. If so
C. Or else
D. Owing
to
Question 21: _______ how much money she spends on her clothes, she never looks welldressed.
A. Despite
B. Without
C. Regardless
D. No matter
Question 22: The passport she carried was___________
A. false
B. imitation
C. artificial
D. untrue
Question 23: . Please call the doctor if the victim is ___________ hurt.
A. serious
B. bad
C. badly
D. getting
Question 24. ___________ he was sick, he still turned up for his guitar lesson.
A. Because
B. Since
C. Although
D. Despite
Question 25: That wasnt a true story. I just ___________ it up.
A. put
B. made
C. got
D. did
Identify the underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the
sentence to be corrected

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English 12
Keep calm and survive exams
Question 26. John announced that he could not longer tolerate the conditions of the
contract under which
A
B
C
D
he was working.
Question 27. Mary was determined to leave the office by 4:30 for catching the early
train home.
A
B
C
D
Question 28. The little boys mother bought him a five - speeds racing bicycle for his
birthday.
A
B
C
D
Choose the answer -a, b, c, or d- that is nearest in meaning to the sentence
printed before.
Question 29: I dislike it when people criticised me unfairly
A. I object to people criticising me unfairly
C. They criticised me unfairly
B. They criticised me because I was not fair
D. I dont like to be criticised
Question 30. Its possible that she didnt hear what I said
A. She may not hear what I said
B. She might not hear what I said
C. She might have not heard what I said
D. She may not have heard what I
said
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done
with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way
to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean
the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to
unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect
of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors
to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may
want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about
the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself
questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with children? Are you
more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers;
only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which
ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of
importance to you.
Question 31. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order
to________.
A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
Question 32: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. questions
B. answers
C. features
D. jobs
Question 33: The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced
by____________.
A. discovering
B. considering
C. measuring
D.
disposing

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English 12
Keep calm and survive exams
Question 34: Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job
EXCEPT for __________.
A. Your likes and your dislikes
B. The atmosphere at work
C. Geographical location
D. Your strengths and weaknesses
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. Choose whatever job you like.
B. Never care about the right or wrong answer.
C. Decide to choose job offered to you.
D. Ask yourself about what you like.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Thomas Alva Edison lit up the world with his invention of the electric light. Without him,
the world might still be a dark place. However, the electric light was not only invention. He
also invented the phonograph, the motion picture camera, and over 1,200 other things.
About every two weeks he created something new.
Thomas A. edison was born in Milan, ohio, on February 11, 1847. His family moved to
port Huron, Michigan, when he was seven years old. Surprisingly, he attended school for
only two months. His mother, a former teacher, taught him a few things, but Thomas was
mostly self-educated. His natural curiosity led him to start experimenting at a young age
with electrical and mechanical things at home.
When he was 12 years old, he got his first job. He became a newsboy on a train that
ran between Port Huron and Detroit. He set up a laboratory in a baggage car of the train
so that he could continue his experiments in his spare time. Unfortunately, his first work
experience did not end well. Thomas was fired when he accidentally set fire to the floor of
the baggage car.
Thomas then worked for five years as a telegraph operator, but he continued to spend
much of his time on the job conducting experiments. He got his first patent in 1868 for a
vote recorder run by electricity. However, the vote recorder was not a success. In 1870, he
sold another invention, a stock-ticker, for $ 40,000. A stock-ticker is a machine that
automatically prints stock prices on a tape. He was then able to build his first shop in
Newark, New Jersey.
Thomas Edison was totally deaf in one ear and hard of hearing in the other, but thought
of his deafness as a blessing in many ways. It kept conversations short, so that he could
have more time for work. He called himself a ''two-shift man'' because he worked 16 out
of every 24 hours. Sometimes he worked so intensely that his wife had to remind him to
sleep and eat.
Thomas Edison died at the age of 84 on October 18, 1931, at his estate in West Orange,
New Jersey. He left numerous inventions that improved the quality of life all over the
world.
Question36. Thomas Edison did things in this order:
A. he became a telegraph operator, a newsboy, and then got his first patent
B.he became a newsboy, got his first patent and then became a telegraph operator.
C.he got his first patent , became a telegraph operator, and then became a newsboy
D.he became a newsboy, a telegraph operator and then got his first patent
Question 37. Edison considered his deafness _______
A. a disadvantage
B. a blessing
C. something from the priest
D.
a necessity
Question 38: Of all the inventions,_______was probably the most important for
civilization.
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