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Practice tests for level b1+

Virginia Evans - Jenny Dooley - Chavdar Zdravchev


Test A: Listening Comprehension
PART 1
Directions: You will hear a text twice. Before you listen to the recording, read the statements below. As
you listen to the recording for the first time, look at the statements, but DO NOT take any notes! As you
listen to the recording for the second time, you are allowed to mark the statements as true or false (T/F).

1

Lissi looks after elderly people in London.

..............................

2

Lissi lives in a very small house of her own.

..............................


3

Part of Lissi’s job is to do some housework.

..............................

4

Lissi has never been to London before.

..............................

5

She finds London quite an exciting city.

..............................

6

Lissi didn’t find the agency she chose on the Internet.

..............................

7

To become an au pair, one is interviewed by an agency.

..............................

8

Lissi is pleased with and fond of the family she works for.

..............................

9

A girl Lissi knows had a much better family than hers.


..............................

You have to be fluent in English to start working as an au pair.

..............................

10

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Test A: Reading Comprehension
PART 2: Task 1
Directions: Read the text below. Then, read the questions that follow it and circle the letter of the
correct answer (A, B, C or D).
I am sometimes amazed at my own children, the way they get angry if they have to do the dishes twice in one week,
the way they act over small bumps and cuts. As a mum, I’ve had to teach myself to admire bloody baby teeth and clean
the dirt from scraped knees. However, in my mind, my mother’s voice and that of my grandmother still come into my
head. “Oh for goodness sake, you aren’t hurt!” they used to say. For a moment, I want to tell this new generation about
my little brother calmly spitting out a handful of tooth pieces and going back in to grab the biggest cow in the barn. I
want to tell my children how tough I was, falling asleep at the table with hands so sore that I couldn’t hold a fork, or about
their grandmother, who cut off three of her fingers on a piece of farm equipment but finished the job before she came in
to get help. For a moment, I’m terrified I’ll make a mistake and tell them to get tough.
Like my parents and grandparents, I was born and trained to live on a farm. I could rope horses and ride a tractor as
well as my brother, but being female, I also learned to bake bread and can vegetables, and keep my opinions to myself
when others were talking. When an unmarried neighbour asked me out when I was fifteen, my parents were proud and
hopeful. Though he was twelve years older than I was, his other numbers were very promising. He and his father had
over fifteen hundred cows on 36,000 acres of land.

11

The text is probably…
A a newspaper advertisement.
B a television commercial.
C an extract from a book.
D a magazine article.

13

From the text we know that the author...
A didn’t like her childhood.
B had a terrible mother and father.
C has not changed over the years.
D had a difficult childhood.

12

The author is thinking about her childhood
because…
A she is comparing herself to her children.
B her children asked her about it.
C she misses her family members.
D she worries her children are weak.

14

“Oh for goodness sake, you aren’t hurt!” is
similar in meaning to…
A “I am happy you didn’t hurt yourself.”
B “You should have hurt yourself.”
C “I regret you didn’t hurt yourself.”
D “You can’t have hurt yourself.”

PART 2: Task 2
Directions: Mark the following statements as true or false (T/F).

2

15

The author gets angry with her children’s behaviour.

..............................

16

The author’s brother is younger than she is.

..............................

17

The mother worked hard when she was young.

..............................

18

The author did both farm work and housework.

..............................

19

The author did not speak when men were around.

..............................

20

The man who wanted to date the author was poor.

..............................

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Test A: Use of English
PART 3: Task 1
Word Formation
Directions: Use the words in brackets to form words, which fit in the gaps.
21

It’s the feeling of ……………...........…………… (FREE) that I enjoy most when I go skiing.

22

I not only find reading science fiction ……………...........…………… (RELAX) but I also get ideas for my
compositions.

23

I’ve been playing with the band for a year now, and I get the same feeling of ……………...........……………
(EXCITE) every time we play.

24

Painting is something that gives me a lot of ……………...........…………… (PLEASE).

25

What a day! My ……………...........…………… (ASSIST) was off work and the computers were down for 6
hours.

26

Language wasn’t too big a problem because ……………...........…………… (AMAZE) almost everyone
spoke English.

27

The architecture of modern buildings is just so ……………...........…………… (BORE) to look at.

28

There is more at Brown’s than just fine food — our home ……………...........…………… (DELIVER)
service is fast and efficient.

29

Don’t just walk into the video store and choose the first DVD that catches your eye; go on a friend’s
……………...........…………… (RECOMMEND).

30

I hate it when the pilot starts the engines and suddenly everyone goes quiet in ……………...........………
(ANTICIPATE).

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PART 3: Task 2
Cloze Test
Directions: Read the text and for each gap circle the letter (A, B, C or D) of the word or phrase that
best suits each space.

Skiing is a sport like golf where practice alone is not enough. Whatever your level, from complete
beginner to potential World Cup star, you need expert 31) ............ to progress. Throughout the winter, a
growing 32) ............ of specialist courses in Europe and North America promise to correct bad technique
by providing a friendly alternative approach to conventional ski schools.
The nervous skier
The feeling of anxiety and a general 33) ............ of control on skis are all too often what holds people
back. Small children whiz past, bigger snowboarders thunder by, and you sometimes feel like 34) ............
and going home.
The Ski Company (not to be confused with the luxury tour operator of the same name), holds courses
for nervous skiers based in Courchevel, with its gentle and beautifully 35) ............ slopes. The teaching
principle is based on putting you in 36) ............ of your skis so that you can decide where you want to go
and how fast.
Tip: Learning to relax is one of the key elements to 37) ............ a better skier.
Dates: January 19th and January 26th, maximum eight skiers per group. Level 1 is for people who are
38) ............ on the nursery slopes and level 2 is for those who can handle an easy ‘black’ run down the
slope.
Holiday cost: í740 for seven nights, six-day lift pass, three hours of 39) ............ and video analysis five
days a week, flights and transfers.
Course only: í200 for three teaching hours on 40) ............ of the five days.
Bookings: The Ski Company:
Telephone #: 0870 12345678;
Website: www.theskicompany.co.uk

4

31

A learning

B coaching

C studying

D discovering

32

A amount

B quantity

C number

D capacity

33

A famine

B shortage

C excess

D lack

34

A surrendering

B giving up

C submitting

D providing

35

A maintained

B retained

C destroyed

D supported

36

A responsibility

B duty

C charge

D obligation

37

A converting

B growing

C turning

D becoming

38

A convinced

B confident

C persuaded

D doubtful

39

A tuition

B education

C knowledge

D awareness

40

A other

B each

C another

D few

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PART 3: Task 3
Sentence Completion
Directions: Circle the answer (A, B, C or D) which best completes the meaning of each sentence.
41

My daughter is not ... to go to school on her
own every morning.
A old enough
C too old
B enough old
D very old

47

Both Kate and Jack are keen on … in the
mountains in the winter months.
A to go ski
C going skiing
B go to ski
D go skiing

42

Timothy ... English at one of the best language
schools in the country.
A used to teach
C was used to teach
B would teaching
D got used to teach

48

43

It is high time Daniel ... playing computer
games every evening.
A stops
C will stop
B stopped
D has stopped

Unlike my mother, my father thinks that our
country house needs … .
A to be redecorated
B to have redecorated
C to redecorate
D to be redecorating

49

It was during the winter holidays … Alex visited
Bansko in Bulgaria.
A that
C where
B when
D what

50

“What …, Jack? Look at your new T-shirt and
shorts. They’re covered in mud.”
A were you doing
B have you been doing
C will you have been doing
D had you been doing

44

If you ... Jenny, tell her to phone her husband
immediately.
A see
C have seen
B will see
D will be seeing

45

It is the first time my best friend Georgiana … by
plane.
A travelled
C is travelling
B travels
D has ever travelled

46

She asked herself if she … New York and
Washington DC again.
A will ever visit
C would ever visit
B had ever visited D has ever been visiting

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PART 3: Task 4
Sentence Transformations
Directions: Rephrase the following sentences keeping the original meaning.
51

She will probably come to Jim’s farewell party.
She is .................................................................
.......................................................................... .

57

This house is so expensive that we can’t buy it.
It is .....................................................................
.......................................................................... .

52

I advise you to apologize to your girlfriend.
You’d .................................................................
.......................................................................... .

58

My neighbour pays a woman to look after her
daughter.
My neighbour has .............................................
.......................................................................... .

53

John hasn’t finished doing his homework yet.
John is still .........................................................
.......................................................................... .

59

“Where are you planning to spend your holiday?”
Kate asked me.
Kate asked me where .......................................
.......................................................................... .

60

They are building a new mall in our
neighbourhood.
A new mall .........................................................
......................................................................... .

54

6

It’s been two years since I last went to the
cinema.
I haven’t .............................................................
.......................................................................... .

55

Jessica is not in the mood to go out tonight.
Jessica doesn’t feel ..........................................
.......................................................................... .

56

Although Maria studied hard, she didn’t pass
the exam.
In spite ...............................................................
.......................................................................... .

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Test A: Writing
PART 4
Directions: Choose one of the tasks below and write your answer in about 100-120 words.
1

Read the extract from Amanda’s letter. Write a reply telling her about your hobby or hobbies and ask
three questions about her best friend’s party. Remember the rules of letter writing.

I would love to know what you do in your spare time. Do you have any hobbies? How often
do you see your friends?
I must stop now, as I need to get ready for my best friend’s birthday party this evening. It will
be great fun.


2

What is a typical Monday like for you? Write a composition in which you include information about
what you do in the morning, in the afternoon and in the evening. You might find the following
vocabulary useful:
ñ get up
ñ have lunch
ñ have breakfast
ñ do my homework
ñ leave home
ñ eat dinner
ñ walk to school
ñ spend the evening
ñ classes start/finish
ñ go to bed etc.
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Test B: Listening Comprehension
PART 1: Task 1
Directions: You will hear an interview twice. Before you listen to the recording, read the questions and
the four choices below. As you listen to the recording for the first time, look at the questions and the
four choices, but DO NOT take any notes! As you listen to the recording for the second time, you are
allowed to circle the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C or D).
1

Cynthia Garfield…
A works for a company called Perfect Parties.
B has a company called Perfect Parties.
C wants to start her own business.
D has a starting business.

2

Cynthia helps other people…
A find someone to marry.
B plan and organise parties.
C print party invitations.
D decide when to hold parties.

3

4

Cynthia started her company because…
A she didn’t like the job she was doing.
B she was working too hard.
C she realized people were too busy to plan
parties.
D her relatives didn’t like having parties.

5

The interviewer asks Cynthia to advise
listeners on how to…
A give successful parties.
B work for successful companies.
C begin their own businesses.
D find good jobs.

The interviewer is impressed by…
A how much money Cynthia makes.
B how many parties Cynthia organises.
C how Cynthia organises her time.
D how well-organised Cynthia’s parties are.

PART 1: Task 2
Directions: You will hear an interview twice. Before you listen to the recording, read the statements
below. As you listen to the recording for the first time, look at the statements, but DO NOT take any
notes! As you listen to the recording for the second time, you are allowed to mark the statements as
true or false (T/F).
6

You have to send in your entry in the next two days.

..............................

7

You cannot send songs written by someone else.

..............................

8

If you win, you’ll be able to record your winning entry.

..............................

9

You must be over 18 years old to enter the competition.

..............................

You will get your cassette back after the competition.

..............................

10

8

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Test B: Reading Comprehension
PART 2: Task 1
Directions: Read the text below. Then, read the statements that follow it and mark them as true or
false (T/F).

THE

Lady

WITH THE

Lamp

Less than 200 years ago, most hospitals were dirty and unhealthy places. Then, one person changed everything. Florence
Nightingale was the first great nurse of the world. She changed nursing into a respected profession, and she set standards for
clean, safe hospitals all over the world. Her picture hangs on the walls of many hospitals.
When Florence was twelve years old, she decided she wanted to do something useful with her life. She enjoyed visiting
sick people in the neighbourhood.
Florence was very special because most Victorian middle-class women didn’t have careers, but Florence wanted to become
a nurse. Her parents wanted her to get married, but their disapproval didn’t stop her from doing what she wanted.
Florence went to Germany to learn about nursing. At that time, nurses learned through experience, not through training.
Florence looked after sick people, gave them medicine and helped during operations.
In 1854, Britain entered the Crimean War. Florence and a team of 38 nurses went to the Crimea to help the wounded
soldiers. The military hospitals were dirty and badly organized. Florence made the hospitals clean and safe. The number of
deaths in hospitals went down from 40% to 2%.
Florence was kind and gentle with the soldiers. She talked to them and gave them hope. When she walked around the
hospital at night, she carried a lamp and that’s how she got the title ‘The Lady with the Lamp’.
After the war, Florence wrote a book explaining how to make hospitals better. People from all over the world asked for
her advice on designing hospitals.
Florence thought that nurses should learn through both experience and training. In 1860, she opened her training school
for nurses. Today, the Nightingale Nurses still care for the sick and the poor.
Florence died on 13th August 1910 in London. She was 90 years old. On her gravestone, it says “F. N. Born 1820. Died
1910.” She didn’t want any other memorial.

11

Florence Nightingale used to clean hospitals.

..............................

12

When Florence was 12, she looked after people who were ill.

..............................

13

Florence Nightingale was not like other women of her time.

..............................

14

Her parents were happy that she wanted to be a nurse.

..............................

15

Florence Nightingale trained to be a nurse in Crimea.

..............................

16

Florence Nightingale designed a number of hospitals.

..............................

17

When the war was over, Florence travelled all over the world.

..............................

18

The school Florence Nightingale started is still open today.

..............................
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PART 2: Task 2
Directions: Circle the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C or D).
19

10

The text …
A tells the story of a military hospital.
B explains how nursing started.
C is Florence Nightingale’s life story.
D describes life during the Crimean War.

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20

The text is most probably part of …
A an advertisement.
B a news article.
C a magazine article.
D an interview.


Test B: Use of English
PART 3: Task 1
Word Formation
Directions: Use the words in brackets to form words, which fit in the gaps.

FLORIDA
Florida is in the 21) ........................................ (SOUTH) United States of America. Many people live
there and many others want to live there. Every day, around 700 people move to Florida. Also, many
22) ........................................ (TOUR) choose Florida for their holidays.
The sun shines in Florida for 300 days a year, so it’s not 23) ........................................ (SURPRISE) that
most people spend a lot of time on the white sands of Miami Beach.
The Florida Everglades is the second largest national park in America. Dangerous animals, such as
alligators and 24) ........................................ (POISON) snakes, live there. Lots of birds live there too,
25) ........................................ (INCLUDE) pelicans and herons.
The most popular tourist 26) ........................................ (ATTRACT) in Florida is Disney World in
Orlando. More than 20 million people visit it every year. You can meet all the Disney characters and go
on lots of 27) ........................................ (EXCITE) rides – everyone has a fantastic time. Make sure you
spend at least one day here.
Sea World is also in Orlando and you can see 28) ........................................ (PERFORM) by whales and
dolphins. You can also find out about Sea World’s special 29) ........................................ (BREED)
programme and the Animal Rescue Team who will tell you how to help 30) ........................................
(DANGER) animals.
Finally, Florida also has some interesting trivia. You might not know this but the first suntan cream
was invented in Miami by a chemist in 1944. Miami also had the first cash-point machine for rollerbladers!

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PART 3: Task 2
Cloze Test
Directions: Read the text and for each gap circle the letter (A, B, C or D) of the word that best suits
each space.

“Turkey Day”
In America, the last Thursday in November is a national holiday called Thanksgiving. People travel to be
with their families and friends and to 31) ............ a special meal. In New York, there is the Macy’s
Thanksgiving parade. More than two million people 32) ............ the parade, and people all over America
watch it on television.
The turkey is the 33) ............ of Thanksgiving and the holiday is sometimes called Turkey Day. This is
because the dinner is roast turkey with lots of vegetables.
Americans love eating turkey. They now eat twice as much as they did twenty years 34) ............ – the
average American consumes eight and a half kilos of turkey each year. Forty-five million turkeys are eaten
each year at Thanksgiving.
Most farm turkeys live 35) ............ factory farms. Many people think that factory farming is cruel
36) ............ up to twenty five thousand birds live in one shed with hardly any space to move.
About one hundred years ago, wild turkeys in America were nearly extinct because people 37) ............
the forests where they lived in order to build houses. Now, there are 38) ............ programmes to bring
turkeys back to the countryside. In 1959, there were only 450,000 wild turkeys, but in 1990, there were
three and a half million.
Benjamin Franklin, one of the 39) ............ fathers of the United States, loved wild turkeys. He wanted the
wild turkey to be the emblem of America instead of the eagle which was finally chosen to 40) ............ the
country.

12

31

A enjoy

B like

C benefit

D promote

32

A go

B attend

C arrive

D come

33

A badge

B logo

C signal

D symbol

34

A before

B past

C ago

D formerly

35

A in

B at

C on

D into

36

A as

B like

C while

D though

37

A defeated

B destroyed

C fought

D conquered

38

A reservation

B renovation

C restoration

D conservation

39

A founding

B beginning

C leading

D establishing

40

A demonstrate

B express

C reveal

D represent

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PART 3: Task 3
Sentence Completion
Directions: Circle the answer (A, B, C or D) which best completes the meaning of each sentence.
41

Janet ... the housework when I called her and
invited her to dinner.
A has been doing C was doing
B had been doing D will be doing

46

The lady … with the luggage yesterday invited
me to lunch at her house.
A which I helped
C I helped
B that helped my
D whose help me

42

When we lived in Burgas, our mum … us to the
beach every day in the summer.
A was taking
C is taking
B would take
D had taken

47

43

This time tomorrow, I … to Budapest where I
will attend a seminar.
A will fly
B will have been flying
C will be flying
D am going to fly

Sam was upset because the school
performance … by the time he got there.
A was finished
B had been finished
C was being finished
D had finished

48

Every day, Jessica and Tim spend at least two
to three hours … the Internet.
A surf
C to surfing
B to surf
D surfing

44

Most of my classmates think that watching TV
… listening to music.
A isn’t as interesting than
B is more interesting from
C is as interesting as
D is the least interesting than

49

Jane is happy as the doctor told her that there
wasn’t … wrong with her baby.
A something
B nothing
C everything
D anything

45

Peter’s car broke down an hour ago and he
went to Ben’s garage to … .
A have him to repair it
B have it repairing
C have it repaired
D have him repaired it

50

The carpet in our living room is a bit dirty. I
think it needs … .
A clean
C cleaning
B to clean
D to be cleaning

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PART 3: Task 4
Sentence Transformations
Directions: Rephrase the following sentences keeping the original meaning.

14

51

“I was watering the flowers in the garden when
the telephone rang,” she said.
She said that .....................................................
.......................................................................... .

56

Vanessa isn’t in the habit of sending text
messages.
Vanessa isn’t .....................................................
.......................................................................... .

52

Let’s go to the cinema tonight, Doug.
How about .........................................................
.......................................................................... .

57

“I am sorry I cancelled the appointment,” the
dentist said.
The dentist apologised .....................................
.......................................................................... .

53

Residents must lock the front door by 11
o’clock at night at the latest.
The front door ...................................................
.......................................................................... .

58

It is a one-hour flight from Sofia to Athens.
It .........................................................................
.......................................................................... .

59

I’m sure it wasn’t Jack who broke the living
room window.
It can’t ................................................................
.......................................................................... .

60

It’s a pity you didn’t attend Vicky’s birthday
party yesterday.
If only .................................................................
......................................................................... .

54

Leave on time or you will miss the train.
You will miss the train if ....................................
.......................................................................... .

55

When did you last go to the theatre?
How long has ....................................................
.......................................................................... .

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Test B: Writing
PART 4
Directions: Choose one of the tasks below and write your answer in about 100-120 words.
1

Read the extract from Helen’s letter. Write a reply to Helen, who has just got back from holiday, telling
her about your new school. Ask three questions about her new pet. Remember the rules of letter
writing.

I hope you like your new school. What is it like? How about your teachers? What is your
favourite lesson? Why?
I am very excited because I am getting a dog tomorrow! I really can’t wait!


2

Write a composition about a trip you will never forget. Say when and where you went, who you went
with, what the weather was like, what you did and saw there and why you will never forget this
experience.
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Test C: Listening Comprehension
PART 1: Task 1
Directions: You will hear some radio adverts about holidays twice. Before you listen to the recording,
read the headings below. As you listen to the recording for the first time, look at the headings, but DO
NOT take any notes! As you listen to the recording for the second time, you are allowed to choose the
correct heading (A-J) for each advert.
A

Kids Only!

B

Safari Adventure

C

Winter Sun

D

Paradise for Winter Sports

E

Hiking Holiday

F

Relax in the Tropics

G

Island Hopping

H

Mediterranean Cruise

I

A Taste of France

J

Historians’ Getaway

1
2
3
4
5

PART 1: Task 2
Directions: You will hear a text about sitting an exam twice. Before you listen to the recording, read
the statements below. As you listen to the recording for the first time, look at the statements, but DO
NOT take any notes! As you listen to the recording for the second time, you are allowed to mark the
statements as true or false (T/F).
6

Students must not take their bags into the room.

..............................

7

Students may leave the room for a drink.

..............................

8

You will be removed from the hall for talking during the exam.

..............................

9

Students should make notes on the answer sheet.

..............................

The duration of the exam is 120 minutes.

..............................

10

16

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Test C: Reading Comprehension
PART 2: Task 1
Directions: Read what some students’ diets are like and answer the questions below. There is one
sentence that is not needed.

WHAT’S YOUR DIET LIKE?
A

I eat normally – not too many fatty foods or sweets and I try to eat some fruit every day.

B

I buy everything fresh. I don’t eat foods grown by farmers that use lots of chemicals, and I don’t buy things that
have lots of packaging. I shop at the local butcher’s and greengrocer’s rather than the supermarket.

C

I don’t want to get fat. I check how many calories there are in things. I never eat between meals, and I usually eat
salads. If I get thirsty, I drink a glass of water.

D

I eat whatever I like. My favourite foods are chocolate, crisps, pizza and chips. I don’t like cooking, so I usually
buy frozen goods or get a takeaway.

E

I’m not very adventurous when it comes to food. I usually have cereal or toast for breakfast, a sandwich for lunch
and then, for dinner, it’s usually meat and potatoes.

F

I can’t eat any dairy products like milk or cheese. Even when I was a child, I didn’t drink milk. I have to be careful
about what I eat so that I don’t get ill, but …

Which student:
11

eats a lot of junk food?

............................

12

has a balanced diet?

............................

13

can’t eat something for health reasons?

............................

14

is careful about their weight?

............................

15

eats healthily and thinks about the environment?

............................

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17


PART 2: Task 2
Directions: Read the text below. Then, read the questions that follow it and circle the letter of the
correct answer (A, B, C or D).

Just then she heard something splashing about, and she swam closer to see what it was. At first,
she thought it was a walrus or hippopotamus, but then she remembered how small she was now, and
she soon saw that it was only a mouse that had fallen in like herself.
“Should I,” thought Alice, “speak to this mouse? Everything is so out-of-the-ordinary down here,
that I think it can probably talk. Anyway, there’s no harm in trying.” So she began: “O Mouse, do
you know the way out of this pool? I am very tired of swimming about here, O Mouse!” (Alice
thought this must be the right way of speaking to a mouse: she had never done such a thing before,
but she remembered having seen in her brother’s Latin grammar book, “A mouse – of a mouse – to
a mouse – a mouse – O mouse!”). The mouse looked at her curiously, and seemed to wink at her
with one of its little eyes, but it said nothing. “Perhaps it doesn’t understand English,” thought Alice;
so she began again: “Ou est ma chatte?” (Where is my cat?) which was the first sentence in her
French lesson-book. The mouse suddenly jumped out of the water and started to shake with fright.
“Oh, I beg your pardon!” cried Alice quickly, afraid that she had hurt the poor animal’s feelings. “I
forgot you don’t like cats.” “Not like cats!” screamed the mouse, in a high, passionate voice. “No
mouse likes cats!”

18

16

Alice is …
A at a zoo.
B in a library.
C at school.
D in water.

19

The mouse …
A really didn’t like Alice.
B shouted loudly at Alice.
C was terribly cold.
D was like other mice.

17

Alice wanted to talk to the mouse because …
A she wanted to see if it would answer.
B it was not an ordinary mouse.
C she thought it would help her.
D she liked speaking French.

20

This text is about …
A a little girl with a problem.
B a mouse who hates cats.
C a little girl who likes mice.
D a mouse that speaks English.

18

The mouse spoke when Alice …
A said she was sorry.
B mentioned a cat.
C spoke a different language.
D read something to it.

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Test C: Use of English
PART 3: Task 1
Word Formation
Directions: Use the words in brackets to form words, which fit in the gaps.

EARLY INTRODUCTION TO FOREIGN LANGUAGES
Children growing up in this changing world will have to understand and speak more than one
language.
Even though education in a second language 21) ........................................ (TRADITION) doesn’t
begin until later, evidence is mounting that children learn languages more easily if they start early in
life.
22) ........................................ (EXPOSE) to foreign languages must begin early, in the home.
Children can learn as many 23) ........................................ (SPEECH) languages as possible as long as
they hear them systematically and regularly.
Leaders in many professions realize that 24) ........................................ (FLUENT) in a foreign language
is essential in their fields. The 25) ........................................ (ABLE) to speak a foreign language has
never been more important. While there is 26) ........................................ (AGREE) that early language
learning is important, it has not been implemented on a widespread basis in primary schools.
Parents must take an active role in 27) ........................................ (INTRODUCE) their children to
foreign languages. Multilingual books, audio tapes and videos are 28) ........................................ (WIDE)
available in libraries and bookstores. The increasing 29) ........................................ (PRESENT) of
computers in the home offers another powerful tool for home language learning.
By helping your child, you’ll have made a 30) ........................................ (LAST) contribution to his or
her quality of life and understanding of others.

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19


PART 3: Task 2
Multiple Choice
Directions: Circle the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best fits in each space.

31

A lot of teachers … in the strike at the
beginning of the school year.
A took place
C took up
B took part
D took after

36

Nowadays, there are many people who …
money from banks to buy a house or a flat.
A lend
C provide
B borrow
D supply

32

The new secondary school in
neighbourhood has many sports … .
A appliances
C facilities
B resources
D conveniences

37

33

When people want to see a doctor, they have
to make … in advance.
A a meeting
C an arrangement
B a date
D an appointment

The Johnsons had to cancel their journey to
Manchester last weekend because of the …
fog.
A thick
C strong
B deep
D fat

38

In Bulgaria, it is … to talk on your mobile
phone while you are driving a car.
A lawless
C insincere
B dishonest
D illegal

39

After he left the Ministry, many private
companies … him and offered him a job.
A advanced
C arrived
B approached
D reproached

40

If you visit Borovets, you will have the chance
to admire fantastic mountain … .
A vision
C scenery
B landscape
D setting

34

35

20

our

Having just come back from Greece, George
… that we visit the country one day.
A advised
C insisted
B recommended
D ordered
It goes without saying that having a bus stop
in front of your block of flats is very … .
A comfortable
C convenient
B appropriate
D suitable

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PART 3: Task 3
Sentence Completion
Directions: Circle the answer (A, B, C or D) which best completes the meaning of each sentence.
41

I am sorry, but Martin … a shower. Would you
like to leave a message for him?
A has
C has had
B is having
D has been having

46

Don’t worry about your essay in English. I …
you a hand as soon as the film is over.
A am going to give C will have given
B will give
D am giving

42

My younger brother … every time my parents
refuse to buy him something.
A cries
C cried
B is crying
D will cry

47

Terry has always been good at foreign
languages. She … French when she was 10.
A is able to speak C could speak
B could to speak
D can speak

43

Angela attended a three-month intensive
training course in English and computing. ...
A So Mark did.
C Mark has done too.
B Nor did Mark.
D So did Mark.

48

Remember … the cooker and the TV before
you go out with Samantha and Peter.
A turning off
C turn off
B to turning off
D to turn off

44

Nick took a taxi … late for his first meeting with
the new owner of the company.
A so as not be to
C in order not to be
B so that he not be D to be not

49

Don’t tell Bob about the surprise, …?
A will you
C won’t you
B do you
D don’t you

50

45

It is very difficult for me to fall asleep at night
because I drink far too … coffee.
A much
C a lot of
B many
D lots of

It … that the plane from Bucharest to Sofia will
be delayed due to bad weather.
A expects
C is expected
B is expecting
D is expect

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21


PART 3: Task 4
Sentence Transformations
Directions: Rephrase the following sentences keeping the original meaning.
51

The university is not close enough for me and
Karen to go on foot every morning.
The university is ................................................
.......................................................................... .

52

Bob does not like travelling to Sofia by train
and Maria does not like it, either.
Neither ...............................................................
.......................................................................... .

53

54

55

22

All the students from our class went on the
excursion to Turkey except for Lily.
Lily was ..............................................................
.......................................................................... .
It is forbidden to use reference books and
dictionaries when you sit an exam.
You are not ........................................................
.......................................................................... .
My son always finds it difficult to understand his
lessons in Physics and History.
My son always has ...........................................
.......................................................................... .

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56

Joseph has never had a better mobile phone
than the one he was given yesterday.
The mobile phone Joseph was given yesterday
is ........................................................................
.......................................................................... .

57

All my colleagues read online newspapers as
soon as they arrive at the office.
On ......................................................................
.......................................................................... .

58

As Lucy’s son and daughter get older, they
become more absent-minded.
The ...................................................................
.......................................................................... .

59

This museum has not been visited by many
tourists since it was opened a year ago.
Only a ................................................................
.......................................................................... .

60

I don’t have the slightest idea why Erika and
her husband left the party that early.
I have no idea what ...........................................
......................................................................... .


Test C: Writing
PART 4
Directions: Choose one of the tasks below and write your answer in about 100-120 words.
1

You are going to throw a party on New Year’s Eve in your house. Write a letter to a friend of yours who
lives in another city/town/village inviting him/her to join you. In your letter, tell your friend who will be
present at the party, what you have already planned and what else needs to be arranged.

2

Write an article for your school magazine with the title “A Person I Admire”. In your article, include
information about this person’s appearance, personality, hobbies, interests, likes and dislikes and
point out why he/she is worth admiring.
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................

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23


Test D: Listening Comprehension
PART 1: Task 1
Directions: You will hear a text about a visit to a museum twice. Before you listen to the recording,
read the statements below. As you listen to the recording for the first time, look at the statements, but
DO NOT take any notes! As you listen to the recording for the second time, you are allowed to circle
the letter of the correct answer (A, B or C).
1

Smoking in the museum is prohibited.
A True
B False
C No information in the text

2

No photos can be taken in the museum.
A True
B False
C No information in the text

3

4

The coach leaves the museum at a quarter
past four.
A True
B False
C No information in the text

5

Parents must stay with their children in the
activity room.
A True
B False
C No information in the text

Visitors to the museum have to pay to get in.
A True
B False
C No information in the text

PART 1: Task 2
Directions: You will hear some interesting facts about dogs twice. Before you listen to the recording,
read the questions and the four choices below. As you listen to the recording for the first time, look at
the questions and the four choices, but DO NOT take any notes! As you listen to the recording for the
second time, you are allowed to circle the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C or D).
6

In some parts of the world, dogs are …
A used for their fur.
B used in circus acts.
C a source of food.
D treated very badly.

7

In most societies, dogs are …
A looked after and respected.
B abused and honoured.
C protected but not respected.
D All of the above.

8

24

Ancient Greeks …
A mummified their dogs.
B believed that dogs were holy.
C were sure dogs brought bad luck.
D associated dogs with the next life.

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9

10

It is thought that dog bones were first found in

A Israel.
B Russia.
C Denmark.
D Asia.
Today, dogs …
A only work in police departments.
B help handicapped people.
C aren’t as useful as they used to be.
D are very rarely adopted by people.


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