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BỘ đề và đáp án môn TIẾNG ANH lớp 11 kì THI HSG cấp KHU vực TUYỂN CHỌN của các TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN TRONG cả nước

ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT HSG TIẾNG ANH 11 (DHBB) LẦN THỨ VIII (2013-2014)
Trường THPT Chuyên Bắc Ninh
PART I: LISTENING (15 pts)
Questions 1: You are going to hear a travel Agent discussing a holiday booking with
two Customers. Listen to their conversation and answer questions. (5p)
1. When will both customers be free to travel?
A. The first week of July
B. The whole month except for the last five days
C. From the first to the twenty-third of July
D. From the seventh to the twenty-third of July
2. Which country did the two customers visit last year?
A. Italy

B. Sweden

C. France

D. Portugal

3. How long did the customers want for their holiday?
A. A week


B. Ten days

C. Two weeks

D. Four weeks

4. Why don’t the customers want to go to Italy?
A. Because there are too many young people.
B. Because it would be too hot.
C. Because they’ve been there
D. Because the dates don’t suit them
5. Circle the reason that they don’t like to go to Sweden …
A. Too expensive.

B. Too hot

C. No beaches.

D. Not enough

Questions 2: You will hear a dialogue between two friends. As you listen, fill in
missing words and indicate whether the following statements are true or not by
writing (10p)
There was a lot of traffic in Chase Village three years ago. People drove too fast.
Richard had a very serious (1). _______________________ on Newland Street. He
was afraid to drive there, he always tries to (2). _____________________ that road
when he visits his sister. But now things are (3). ______________________. People

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put on their brakes and (4). _______________________ on Newland Street because
they can see a (5). ______________________ there.

Indicate whether the following statements are true or not by writing
T for a statement which is true;
F for a statement which is false
? if there is insufficient information
____ 6. Now some people still take a risk when the police officer is away on Newland

Street.
____ 7. The police officer there doesn’t get any pay for the work.
____ 8. Officer Springirth is a real man and he is a volunteer there.
____ 9. Officer Springirth helps the police to reduce the crime rate in Chase Village.
____ 10. The police department will put more mannequins on other roads.

PART II: PHONETICS (5p)
Questions 1: Choose one word marked A, B, C or D whose stress pattern is different
from the others in each groups. (2.5p)
1. A. monetary

B. paralysis

C. protagonist

D. analogous

2. A. tuberculosis

B. mathematician C. communication D. inheritance

3. A. magnificent

B. memorial

C. tobacconist

D. humanism

4. A. trigonometry B. explanatory

C. immediately

D. democracy

5. A. confer

C. prefer

D. defer

B. offer

Questions 2: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from
that of the others. (2.5p)
1. A. months

B. mouths

C. wreaths

D. youths

2. A. substitute

B. muddled

C. shutter

D. substantial

3. A. surgical

B. surround

C. surrender

D. survival

4. A. equation

B. television

C. mention

D. decision

5. A. microscope

B. microscopic

C. atrocious

D. cone

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PART III: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35 pts)
Question 1: Choose the best answer A, B, C or D in each sentence to complete it. (10
pts)
1. A common cause of _______ is the use of untreated water in preparation for foods,
which is quite common in certain underdeveloped countries.
A. displeasure

B. malnutrition

C. eupepsia

D. dysentery

2. This museum has more visitors than ________ any other in the world.
A. really

B. practically

C. actually

D. utterly

3. William Boney, _______ Billy the Kid, was a famous Wild West gunman.
A. bogus

B. versus

C.ergo

D. alias

4. The lecture was rather boring, but the ________ discussion proved fruitful.
A. successive

B. consecutive

C. latter

D. subsequent

5. The strong smell of garlic seemed to ________ the flat
A. pierce

B. penetrate

C. inhabit

D. pervade

6. In tennis, the score 15-0 is pronounced as ________ .
A. fifteen, zero

B. fifteen, love

C. fifteen, nil

D. fifteen, nought

7. The man gave a series of ________ answers which told them nothing more.
A. tricky

B. uncertain

C. evasive

D. elusive

8. The students at this university are _______ in blocks of flats on the campus.
A. housed

B. domiciled

C. resident

D. placed

9. The announcement about job losses has _______ consequences for the firm.
A. hard-hitting

B. far-reaching

C. never-ending

D. wide-ranging

10. This is a ________example of what not to do.
A. critical

B. pure

C. simple

D. prime

11. Her article on diet ______ many people into changing their eating habits.
A. surprised

B. amazed

C. startled

D. shocked

12. She wears the most ______ color combinations you could ever imagine.
A. hiding

B. hideout

C. hidebound

D. hideous

13. The chairman asked members to _______ their votes for or against the proposal.
A. bid

B. offer

C. cast

D. throw

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14. Although the patient received intensive treatment, there was no _______
improvement in her condition.
A. decipherable

B. discernible

C. legible

D. intelligible

15. The train __________ from side to side as it went round a series of bends.
A. turned

B. curved

C. lunged

D. swayed

16. Job losses are mainly in the _______ sectors of the industry.
A. blue-collar

B. red-collar

C. stiff-collar

D. high-collar

17. Unfortunately she has been given an _______ task.
A. insurmountable B. undeveloped

C. inoperable

D. unsolved

18. It was a big _______ for her to give up her acting career to look after her family.
A. trial

B. sacrifice

C. endeavour

D. test

19. They are showing a _______ of a 1930’s musical at the Theatre Royal.
A. resurrection

B. revival

C. retake

D. repeat

20. I have no wish to have any _______ with a firm like that.
A. openings

B. handling

C. dealings

D. contacts

Question 2: The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them
(5 pt)
Whirlwind, any rotating air mass, include the tornado and the large cyclonic
and anti-cyclonic storm. In meteorology, the term whirlwind is more strict applied to
the smaller swirling atmospheric phenomenon commonly known as dust devil or dust
whirl, that occurs mostly over deserts and semiarid plains during hot, calm days. The
principal cause of whirlwinds is intense insulation, or incoming solar radiation
receiving by the earth, which produces an overheated air mass just above the ground.
This air masses rises, usually in the form of a cylindrical column, sucking up loose
surface material, so as dust, sand, and leaf. Whirlwinds vary in height from 30 to 152
m, but exceptionally vigorous dust devils may exceed 1524 m in height. The vortices of
whirlwinds range in size from few meters to several hundred meters and, depends on
their force and size, dust devils may disappear in seconds and last several hours. Brief
whirlwinds are erratic in motion, but the longer-lasting ones move slowly with the
prevailing winds.
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Question 3: Complete each space with a suitable particle or preposition (5 pts)
The star (1) _______ the largest scale opera performance over staged (2)
_______ Britain pull out (3) _______ its opening night (4)_______ Sunday. Yerdi’s
Aida is being performed (5) _______ London’s Earl’s Court Arena (6)_______ a cast
of 600 singers, dancers and actors. American soprano Grace Bumbry (7) _______ the
title role was suffering (8)_______ hay fever, but had promised to be “all right on the
night even if my nose drops like the Nile”. Half way (9) _______ the performance she
was unable to continue and was replaced (10) _______ mid-performance (11)_______
Russian Soprano Ghena Dimitrova who was sitting (12)_______ the audience watching
the show. She was taken (13) _______ a dressing room where she put on Ms Bumbry
costume and was made up. She was ready to go (14) _______ the stage (15) _______ a
longer than usual interval.
Tuesday’s performance (16)_______ the presence (17)_______ the Prince and
Princess of Wale will go ahead (18)_______ Ms Bumbry - her role will be taken
(19)_______ Martina Arroyo (20)_______ Italy.

Question 4: Give the correct form/ tense of the verb given below (5 pts)
A. Peter 1(live) _______ in Nodnol, the capital of Marcia. At least, that’s where he
2

(live) _______ when he last 3(write) _______. In his letter, he 4(invite) _______ me to

visit him but as I 5(have) _______ no answer to my last two letters, I 6(wonder)
_______ whether I should go or not. I 7(also/have) _______no reply from the consulate
about the Mercian visa I 8 (apply) _______ for two weeks ago. Although I 9(be)
_______ born in Marcia, I no longer 10(have) _______ a Mercian passport.

B. “Hello Mary, I (1. ring) .................... you before now, but I (2. work ) ....................
so hard this week that I (3. not have) .................... free time (4. have ) ....................
my hair cut. My boss (5. go) .................... on business tomorrow and he (6. tell)
.................... me to arrange everything before he (7. leave ) .................... . If I (8. not
give ) .................... instructions, I (9. come ) .................... to see you tonight. Anyway

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I (10. give ) .................... two tickets for a new play at the Grand theater on Sunday.
Shall we go and see it together?”
Your answers: A.
1. ___________________________

6. _____________________________

2. ___________________________

7. _____________________________

3. ___________________________

8. _____________________________

4. ___________________________

9. _____________________________

5. ___________________________

10. _____________________________

B.
1. ___________________________

6. _____________________________

2. ___________________________

7. _____________________________

3. ___________________________

8. _____________________________

4. ___________________________

9. _____________________________

5. ___________________________

10. _____________________________

Question 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the number space
provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (5p)
Example: 0. existence
Curiosity goes back to the dawn of human (0) EXIST. This irresponsible desire
to know is not a (1) CHARACTER of inanimate objects. Nor does it seem to be
attributable to some form of living organism which, for that very reason, we can
scarcely bring ourselves to consider alive. A tree, for example, does not display (2)
RECOGNISE curiosity, nor does a sponge or even an oyster. If chance events bring
them poison, predators or parasites, they die as (3) CEREMONIOUS as they lived.
Early in the scheme of life, (4) DEFEND motion was developed by some organisms. It
meant an (5) ORDINARY advance in their control of the environment. A moving
organism no longer waited in stolid (6) RIGID for food to come its way, but went out
after it. This individual that hesitated in the (7) ZEAL search for food, or that was
overly (8) CONSERVE in its investigation, starved.
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As organisms grew more complex, more messages of greater variety were
received from and about the (9) ROUND environment. At the same time, the nervous
system, the living instrument that interprets and stores the data collected by the sense
organs, became (10) INCREASE complex.
Your answers:
1. _____________

2. _____________

3. _____________

4. _____________

5. _____________

6. _____________

7. _____________

8. _____________

9. _____________

10. ____________

Question 6: Fill in each blank in the passage with the most suitable linking word
given in the box. (5p)
but
however

not only
although

even though
in general

therefore
furthermore

in addition
secondly

Studying a language in a country where it is widely spoken has many advantages. It is,
(1.) ___________, a good idea to study English in a country such as Britain. However,
I believe it is not the only the way to learn the language.

In the first place, most students in non-speaking English country learn English at high
school and sometime at university nowadays. (2.) ___________ their spoken English
is not usually of a very high standard, their knowledge of grammar is often quite
advanced. This is certainly useful when students come to an English speaking country
to perfect the language.

(3.) ___________, studying the basics of the English at secondary school is less
stressful than learning the language while oversea. This is because students living at
home do not have to worry about problems such as finding accommodation, paying
for their studying and living costs, and trying to survive in a foreign country where
day to day living causes much stress.

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(4.) ___________, there are obvious advantages of learning English in Britain. Every
day there are opportunities to practise listening to and speaking with British people.
(5.) ___________, students can experience the culture first hand, which is a great help
when trying to understand the language. This is especially true if they choose to live
with a British family, as part of a home stay family for example. (6.) ___________, if
students attend a language school fulltime, the teacher will be native speakers. In this
case, (7.) ___________will students speaking and listening skills improve, (8.)
___________ attention can be given to developing reading and writing skill as well.

(9.) ___________, (10.) ___________ it is preferable to study English in an English
speaking country, a reasonable level of English can be achieved in one’s own country,
if a student is gifted and dedicated to study.

PART IV: READING
Question 1: Read the following passage carefully and choose the best option to each
of the questions. (7.5p)
United Parcel Service (UPS) believes that its employees should give the firm
a fair day’s work for a fair’s day pay. The package delivery firm seems willing to give
more than a fair’s day pay. But in (1) ____, UPS expects maximum output from its
employees.
Since 1920s, the firm’s industrial (2) _____ have been studying every detail
of every task (3) ____by most UPS employees. From their studies have come time and
motion standards that (4) ____ how those tasks are performed and how (5) _______
they should take. Drivers, for example, are expected to walk to a Customer’s door at a
speed of exactly three feet per second. They are told to knock as soon as they get there,
rather than (6) ____ time looking for a doorbell.
Work engineers are (7) ____ riding with drivers, timing everything from
stops at traffic lights, to wait at Customers’ doorway, to stairway climbs, to coffee
break. And they are not (8) ____ to pointing out the occasional inefficiency.
Additionally, supervisors ride with the least good drivers, noting how they work and
constantly (9) ____ them until their work is up to standard.
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The (10) ____of all this work engineering is efficiency, and UPS has been
called one of the (11) ______ efficient companies anywhere. It's also a highly
profitable company. Most drivers take the regimentation in stride: many show (12)
____ in meeting the UPS standards each day. (13) _____, however, feel that they are
constantly being pushed, that it is impossible for them to (14) ____ at work. UPS
officials claim that the standards provide accountability. And, they say, (15) ______
who work according to UPS standards should feel less tired at the end of the day.
Question 1: A. fact

B. return

C. exchange

D. short

Question 2: A. engineers

B. workers

C. electrician

D. trainers

Question 3: A. under

B. performed

C. hold

D. accepted

Question 4: A. demonstrate

B. tell

C. indicate

D. govern

Question 5: A. long

B. far

C. often

D. good

Question 6: A. waste

B. wasting

C. spend

D. spending

Question 7: A. consistently

B. continually

C. constructively

D. chronically

Question 8: A. averse

B. brave

C. impolite

D. intimate

Question 9: A. encouraging

B. correcting

C. scolding

D. criticizing

Question 10: A. reason

B. target

C. task

D. object

Question 11: A. most

B. best

C. bad

D. good

Question 12: A. interest

B. pleasure

C. passion

D. pride

Question 13: A. The other

B. An other

C. Ones

D. Others

Question 14: A. rest

B. relax

C. restrain

D. relieve

Question 15: A. trainees

B. interviewees

C. employers

D. employees

Question 2: Fill in the blank with a suitable word. Use only one word in each space.
(7.5p).
Men and women are often considered to be completely at (1) ____________
with each other, in terms of their attitudes and behaviour. Not so when they are in love,
new research

has discovered. As

far as

their hormone levels

are (2)

__________________ when men and women are in love, they are more similar to each
other than at any other time.

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It

has

(3)

__________________ been

known

that

love

can

(4)

__________________ havoc with hormone levels. For example, the hormone cortisol,
which

is known for (5) __________________ calming effect on the body, dips

dramatically when one person is attracted to (6) __________________ putting the
love-struck on a (7) __________________ with sufferers of obsessive compulsive
disorder.
But a new study has found that the hormone testosterone, commonly associated
with male aggression, also falls when he is in love. In women, it's quite the (8)
__________________. Testosterone levels, which (9) __________________ to be
lower among females, (10) __________________ towards those of the male.
Donatella

Marazziti

of

the

University

of

Pisa,

Italy,

(11)

__________________ this down to nature attempting to eliminate the differences
between the (12) __________________. By doing so, they can concentrate fully (13)
__________________ reproduction.
This

suggestion

seems

to

be

supported

by

the

fact

that

(14)

__________________ couples in a long (15) __________________ relationship, nor
participants in the study who were single at the time of the experiment, exhibited such
changes.
Your answers:
1. _________________

6. _________________

11. _______________

2. _________________

7. _________________

12. _______________

3. _________________

8. _________________

13. _______________

4. _________________

9. _________________

14. _______________

5. _________________

10. ________________

15. _______________

Question 3: Read the passage then circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the
following questions or statements (10 pts)
Collecting coins can be a good investment, but it requires the study of
popularity, availability, and grading techniques. Some coins are more desirable than
others, their popularity being affected by the artists’ talent, the subject of design, the
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material from which the coin is made, and the time period when the coin was created.
Availability is just as critical. Providing the coin is otherwise interesting or pleasing to
the eye, the number of coins minted and available on the market seems to have a direct
relationship to the popularity.
The ability to grade coins is perhaps the most important requirement of a
collector. A coin that is popular and scarce, which would normally make it valuable,
may be worth much less or nothing at all if it has a low grade. Grading is standardized,
and one can buy books and take courses on how to do it.
Grades are given letter designations as well as numbers. The letters represent
general levels of the grade, while the numbers are more detailed. For example, there re
11 number grades within the letter grade for a mint state coin. A mint state coin is
uncirculated, which means it has never been used in commerce. It is in the condition
that it left the mint, the place where a coin is created. The mint state letter designation
is MS, and the numbers range from 60 through 70. An absolutely perfect coin is MS70. It takes much training and a good eye to tell the difference between coins in this
range. The things one considers include whether the coin has contact marks, which are
marks obtained when coins bounce against each other in a coin bag; hairlines, which
are marks appearing on the face of the coin from the minting process; luster, which is
the natural coloration; and eye appeal. For example, an MS-70 is said to have no
contact marks, no hairlines, very attractive and fully original luster, and outstanding
eye appeal, while an MS-60 may have heavy contact marks, noticeable hairlines,
impaired luster, and poor eye appeal.
Below the mint state coin, the letter designation and number have the same
meaning. That is, there are generally no numbers within the range of letters. But there
are categories:
Coins that are About Uncirculated: Very Choice About Uncirculated, known
as AU-58; Choice About Uncirculated, known as AU-55; and About Uncirculated,
known as AU-50.
Coins that are Fine: Choice Extremely Fine, known as EF-45; Extremely Fine,
known as EF-40; Choice Very Fine, known as VF-30; Very Fine, known as VF-20;
and Fine, known as F-12.
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Coins that are Good: Very Good, known as VG-8; Good, known as G-4; and
About Good, known as AG-3.
Thus, a circulated coin can have a number designation between 3 and 58, with
only the numbers shown above available. That is, one cannot have a coin with a grade
of 6, for example. It is either G-4 or VG-8. It is possible for a coin labeled G-4 or even
AG-3 to be extremely valuable, but generally, it will be a coin that is almost
unavailable in higher grades. Books and publications monitor the coin market
regularly, just like the stock market is monitored, and they described a coin’s type,
date, and grade, assigning a price to every one unless that grade would have no value.
In general, coin collectors loathe cleaned coins, so artificial cleaning by adding
any chemical will detract greatly from a coin’s value. A true coin collector will say the
dirt in the creases is a positive attribute and much preferable to a cleaned coin.
1. A good title for this passage would be ___.
A. Coin Grading - One of the Most Important Skills in Coin Collecting
B. How Popularity and Availability Affect Coin Value
C. How to Grade Coins - A Detailed Study
D. the Financial Benefits of Coin Collecting
2. The one grading category that has the most number grades within it is ____.
A. Mint State

B. About Uncirculated

C. Good

D. Fine

3. All of the following grades would be possible except ____ .
A. MS-64

B. AG-3

C. AU-56

D. VF-30

4. The author implies that _____.
A. The only difference between an MS-60 and an AU-58 may be that the AU-58
has been in circulation
B. One must be a professional in order to obtain information on coin value
C. Cleaning a coin can increase its value
D. low-grade coin never has value
5. The author implies that the most important feature of a coin is its ____ .
A. date

B. depiction

C. grade

D. artist

6. The author implies that availability is primarily related to ______.
A. the popularity of a coin
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B. the material used to create a coin
C. the age of a coin
D. the number of coins of a given type and date that they were minted
7. According to the author, the phrase contact marks means
A. defects caused by cleaning
B. marks on a coin caused by banging from other coins
C. defects in the minting process
D. connections among coin dealers
8. According to the passage, a Mint State coin with which of the following
characteristics would be graded the highest?
A. One small contact mark, full luster, good eye appeal, and no hairlines
B. One large hairline, diminished luster, good eye appeal, and no contact marks
C. No contact marks, luster affected by cleaning, average eye appeal, and no
hairlines
D. A small contact mark, a small hairline, foggy luster, and fair eye appeal
9. The word “luster” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ___.
A. sheen

B. material

C. marked

D. value

10. The author describes a coin’s popularity as involving all the following except ___.
A. how well the artist created the work B. the coin’s material
C. grade

D. the depiction on the coin

Question 4: From the list of headings below choose the most suitable heading for
each paragraph in the passage and choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
from the passage to complete the sentences. (10 pts)
1) Choose the correct heading for paragraph B-G from the list of headings below.
i

No single definition of intelligence

ii

Faulty setting, wrong conclusion

iii

Welsh research supports IQ testing

iv

Beware: inadequate of testing intelligence

v

International research support bilingualism

vi

Current thought on the advantage bilinguals have
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vii

Early beliefs regarding bilingualism

viii

Monolinguals ahead of their bilingual peers
Exemplifying the bilingual advantage

ix
Example

Paragraph A ____vii ____
1. Paragraph B __________

2. Paragraph C

__________

3. Paragraph D __________

4. Paragraph E

__________

5. Paragraph F __________

6. Paragraph G

__________

A. One misguided legacy over a hundred years of writing on bilingualism is
that children's intelligence will suffer if they are bilingual. Some of the earliest
research into bilingualism examined whether bilingual children were ahead of
monolingual children on IQ tests. From the 1920s to the 1960s, the tendency was to
find monolingual children ahead of bilinguals on IQ tests. The conclusion was that
bilingual children were mentally confused. Having two languages in the brain, it
was said, disrupted effective thinking. It was argued that having one well-developed
language was superior to having two half-developed languages.
B. The idea that the bilinguals may have a lower IQ still exists among many
people, particularly monolinguals. However, we now know that this early research
was misconceived and incorrect. First, such research often gave bilinguals an IQ test
in their weaker language – usually English. Had bilinguals tested in Welsh or
Spanish or Hebrew, a different result may have been found. The testing of bilinguals
was thus unfair. Second, like was not compared with like. Bilinguals tend to come
from, for example, impoverished New York or rural Welsh backgrounds. The
monolinguals tend to come from more middle class, urban families. Working class
bilinguals were often compared with middle class monolinguals. So the results were
more likely to be due to social class differences than language differences. The
comparison of monolinguals and bilinguals was unfair.
C. The most recent research from Canada, the United States and Wales
suggests that bilinguals are, at least, equal to monolinguals on IQ tests. When
bilinguals have two well-developed languages (in the research literature called
balanced bilinguals), bilinguals tend to show a slight superiority in IQ tests
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compared with monolinguals. This is the received psychological wisdom of the
moment and is good news for raising bilingual children. Take, for example, a child
who can operate in either language in the curriculum in the school. That child is
likely to be ahead on IQ tests compared with similar monolinguals (same gender,
social class, and age). Far from making people mentally confused, bilingualism is
now associated with a mild degree of intellectual superiority.
D. One note of caution needs to be sounded. IQ tests probably do not measure
intelligence. IQ tests measure a small sample of the broadest concept of intelligence.
IQ tests are simply paper and pencil tests where only "right and wrong" answers are
allowed. Is all intelligence included in such right and wrong, pencil and paper tests?
Isn't there a wider variety of intelligences that are important in everyday functioning
and everyday life.
E. Many questions need answering. Do we only define an intelligent person
as somebody who obtains a high score on an IQ tests. Are the only intelligent
people those who belong to high IQ organizations such as MENSA? Is there social
intelligence, musical intelligence, military intelligence, marketing intelligence,
motoring intelligence, political intelligence? Are all, or indeed any, of these forms
of intelligence measured by a simple pencil and paper IQ test which demands a
single, acceptable, correct solution to each question? Defining what constitutes
intelligent behavior requires a personal value judgement as to what type of behavior,
and what kind of person is of more worth.
F. The current state of psychological wisdom about bilingual children is that,
where two languages are relatively well developed, bilinguals have thinking
advantages over monolinguals. Take an example. A child is asked a simple
question: How many uses can you think of for a brick? Some children give two or
three answers only. They can think of building walls, building a house or perhaps
that is all. Another child scribbles away, pouring out ideas one after the other:
blocking up a rabbit hole, breaking a window, using as a bird bath, as a plumb line,
as an abstract sculpture in an art exhibition.
G. Research across different continents of the world shows that bilinguals
tend to be more fluent, flexible, original and elaborate in their answers to this type
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of open-ended question. The person who can think of a few answers tend to be
termed a convergent thinker. They converge onto a few acceptable conventional
answers. People who think of lots of different uses for unusual items (e.g. a brick,
tin can, cardboard box) are call divergers. Divergers like a variety of answers to a
question and are imaginative and fluent in their thinking.
H. There are other dimensions in thinking where approximately balanced
bilinguals may have temporary and occasionally permanent advantages over
monolinguals: increased sensitivity to communication. A slightly speedier
movement through the stages of cognitive development, and being less fixed in the
sounds of words and more centred on the meaning of words. Such ability to move
away from the sound of words and fix on the meaning of words tends to be a
(temporary) advantage for bilinguals around the ages four to six. This advantage
may mean an initial head start in learning to read and learning to think about
language.

2) Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage to complete the
sentences.
7. For more than _________________________________, books and articles were
wrong about the intelligence of bilingual children.
8. For approximately 40 years, there was a mistaken belief that children who spoke two
languages were __________________________.
9. It was commonly thought that people with a single _______________________
were more effective thinkers.
10. It was unfair to compare bilinguals and monolinguals by using
____________________________ in English.

PART V: WRITING (30 PTS)
A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the
sentence printed before it. (2.5 points)
1. It’s such a wonderful opportunity that we mustn’t miss it.
It’s too ___________________________________________________________
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2. You’re far more practical than I am.
Nowhere __________________________________________________________
3. Jack loses his temper easily.
It doesn’t _________________________________________________________
4. We must think about ways of improving the transport system.
Thought must _____________________________________________________
5. It isn’t possible that Jane was absent from work today.
Jane______________________________________________________________

B. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in CAPITALS, and so that the
meaning stays the same. (2.5 points)
1. David played the main role when the proposal was drafted. (INSTRUMENTAL)
_________________________________________________________________
2. The house shouldn’t be left unlocked for any reason. (ACCOUNT)
_________________________________________________________________
3. She did very well on her final exams. (COLORS)
_________________________________________________________________
4. His name doesn’t sound familiar to me at all. (BELL)
_________________________________________________________________
5. Recent research has changed theories about the causes of bird flu. (LIGHT)
_________________________________________________________________

Question 2: Study the chart that shows the participation in social work by men and
women of the country of Fancy from 1992 to 2000 and write a report of about 150
words describing their contribution (10 pt).

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Participation in social work by men and women
In thousand
Women

10

Men

8
6
4
2
0
1992

1994

1996

1998

2000

Year

_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
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_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________

Question 3: Essay writing (15 p)
Teenagers can make their own decisions; older people do not need to make
decisions for them. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for

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your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.
You should write about 250 words. You are recommended to spend
approximately 40 minutes on this task.
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
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_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
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_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
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Page 20/20


ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT HSG TIẾNG ANH 11 (DHBB) LẦN THỨ VIII (2013-2014)
Trường THPT Chuyên Bắc Ninh
PART I: LISTENING (15 pts)
Questions 1: You are going to hear a travel Agent discussing a holiday booking with two
Customers. Listen to their conversation and answer questions.(5p)
1D
2C 3C
4D
5A
Tape scripts:
Agent: Good morning. Can I help you?
Customer 1: Yes, good morning. We’d like to book a holiday for July, please.
Agent: Certainly. Where did you have in mind?
Customer 1: Oh, well, we haven’t thought a lot about it, really. We’d just like to go somewhere
hot, you know, and it must be in July.
Agent: I see. Well, let’s get the dates cleared up first, then we can see about availability. What
part of July were you thinking of?
Customer 2: Oh, well, you see, we have slightly different holidays. I’ve got the whole month
except for the last five days, I could go from the first to the twenty-sixth, but my friend here
doesn’t start until the seventh, so I suppose it will have to be the middle two weeks really.
Customer 1: Yes, but I’ve got to be back before the twenty-third.
Agent: OK. Now, let’s find a destination. Any preferences … France … Italy …?
Customer 1: Oh, not France. We went there last year and it was absolutely packed with
teenagers making noise and getting drunk all the time.
Customer 2: Yes, it was terrible. We definitely want somewhere quieter this year.
Agent: Well, of course it depends more on the resort rather than the country. There are resorts
in every country which cater for the family or the slightly older person. They are usually a
shade more expensive, though, as you might expect …
Customer 1: Oh, well, we don’t mind paying a bit more if it means more peace and quiet, do
we?
Customer 2: Definitely not. It’ll be well worth it.
Agent: All right. Let’s have a look at what we’ve got on the computer. … July … was it ten or
fourteen nights you wanted?
Customer 1: Oh, the fortnight, please.
Agent: Right. Well, let’s start with Italy. Umm, we’ve got fourteen nights bed and breakfast in
Sorrento for three hundred and forty-five pounds, from Manchester, on the fourteenth, or,
we’ve got …
Customer 1: No, wait a minute, that’s no good for me. We wouldn’t get back till twenty-eighth,
and I’ve got to be back at work before that.
Agent: Oh, yes, Umm … How about Sweden, two weeks, half-board …
Customer 2: How much would that be?
Agent: That would be five hundred and forty pounds, from Manchester again.
Customer 1: Well, five hundred and forty … er … that seems too much.
Agent: Well, madam, there’s a surcharge for the airport, and it is a five-star hotel.
Customer 2: Oh, well, it’s a bit over our budget, really …
Agent: All right. Let’s try somewhere else. How about Portugal?

Page 1/5


Questions 2: You will hear a dialogue between two friends. As you listen, fill in missing
words and indicate whether the following statements are true or not. (10p)
1. accident
2. avoid
3. changing
4. slow down
5. police car
6.F
7. T
8. F
9. T
10. ?
Tape scripts:
Richard: Hi, Linda, did you have a nice holiday?
Linda: Yes, I went to visit my aunt Cathy in Chase Village for a week.
Richard: Oh, you went to Chase Village? I know the place. My sister lives there. How is the
traffic there?
Linda: Not too bad. Why do you ask about the traffic?
Richard: You know, I went to the traffic 3 years ago. There was a lot of traffic in Chase
Village. People drove too fast. I had a very serious accident on Newland Street. I was afraid
to drive there, so I always try to avoid that road when I visit my sister.
Linda: Things are changing no. You know, people put on their brakes and slow down on New
Land Street because they can see a police car there with a police officer in it.
Richard: Oh, it’s good to have a policeman there because there were many accidents that
happened on that road. But the police officer wouldn’t be there all the time, so some people
wouldn’t be too careful about the police. Sometimes they just took a risk.
Linda: You know, the police officer has been working on that road 24 hours a day, seven days a
week for a bout two and a half years now.
Richard: Oh, how can a policeman do this without any break?
Linda: No break at all.
Richard: How much does he get paid for the overtime work?
Linda: In fact, he doesn’t get any pay at all.
Richard: What is his name? He must be a volunteer there but I can’t believe it.
Linda: His name is Officer Springirth. The police department put him to work there.
Richard: What do you mean? Why did police department put him to work there?
Linda: In fact, he isn’t a real man. He is a mannequin. Before he was put there, people broke
into 16 cars in two months in the village. When the police department put Officer
Springirth on that road there were no more break-ins in that area.
Richard: I’m glad to hear it. I think the police department should put more mannequins
on
other roads which often cause accidents.
Linda: It’s a good idea. You know, the crime rate in Chase Village is very low compared to the
neighbouring village.
Richard: So, the most important effect Officer Springirth has is reducing the crime rate.
Linda: Exactly.
Richard: I will go to visit my sister next month so I will try that road again.
Linda: Yes, please do. You will see the changes.
PART II: PHONETICS (5p)
Questions 1: Choose one word marked A, B, C or D whose stress pattern is different from the
others in each groups. (2.5p)
1A
2D
3D
4A
5B
1. A. monetary
B. paralysis
C. protagonist
D. analogous
Page 2/5


2.
3.
4.
5.

A. tuberculosis
A. magnificent
A. trigonometry
A. confer

B. mathematician
B. memorial
B. explanatory
B. offer

C. communication
C. tobacconist
C. immediately
C. prefer

D. inheritance
D. humanism
D. democracy
D. deter

Questions 2: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of
the others. (2.5p)
1. A 2.D
3. A 4. C 5.B
1. A. months
B. mouths
C. wreaths
D. youths
2. A. substitute
B. muddled
C. shutter
D. substantial
3. A. surgical
B. surround
C. surrender
D. survival
4. A. equation
B. television
C. mention
D. decision
5. A. microscope B. microscopic C. atrocious
D. cone
PART III: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 pts)
Question 1: Choose the best answer A, B, C or D in each sentence to complete it. (5 p)
1D
2B
3D
4D
5D
6B
7C
8A
9B
10D
11C 12D 13C 14B 15D 16A 17A 18B 19B 20C
Question 2: The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them (5 pt)
1. include --> includes
2. strict --> strictly
3. that --> which 4. receiving --> received
5. masses --> mass
6. so --> such
7. leaf --> leaves
8. a few --> few
9.
depends --> depending
10. and --> or
Whirlwind, any rotating air mass, include the tornado and the large cyclonic and anticyclonic storm. In meteorology, the term whirlwind is more strict applied to the smaller
swirling atmospheric phenomenon commonly known as dust devil or dust whirl, that occurs
mostly over deserts and semiarid plains during hot, calm days. The principal cause of
whirlwinds is intense insulation, or incoming solar radiation receiving by the earth, which
produces an overheated air mass just above the ground. This air masses rises, usually in the
form of a cylindrical column, sucking up loose surface material, so as dust, sand, and leaf.
Whirlwinds vary in height from 30 to 152 m, but exceptionally vigorous dust devils may
exceed 1524 m in height. The vortices of whirlwinds range in size from few meters to several
hundred meters and, depends on their force and size, dust devils may disappear in seconds and
last several hours. Brief whirlwinds are erratic in motion, but the longer-lasting ones move
slowly with the prevailing winds.
Question 3: Complete each space with a suitable particle or preposition (5 pt)
1. of
6. with
11. by
16. in
2. in
7. in
12. in
17. of
3. on
8. from
13. to
18. without
4. on
9. through
14. onto
19. by
5. at
10. in
15. after
20. from
Question 4: Give the correct form/ tense of the verb given below (5 pts)
A. 1. Lives
2. Lived/was living
3. Wrote
4. Invited
6. Wonder
7. Have also had
8. Applied
9. Was

5. Have had
10. have
Page 3/5


B. 1. should have rung
5. is going 6. has told
10.was/have been given

2. have worked
7. Leaves

3. haven’t had
8. hadn’t been given

4. to have
9. would come

Question 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the number space provided
in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (5p)
Example: 0. existence
1. Characteristic
2. Recognizable
5. extraordinary
6. Rigidity
9. surrounding
10. increasingly

3. Unceremoniously
7. Zealous

4. independent
8. conservative

Question 6: Fill in each blank in the passage with the most suitable linking word given in the
box. (5p)
(1.) therefore (2.) Although
(3.) Secondly (4.) However
(5.) In addition
(6.) Furthermore (7.) not only
(8.) but
(9.) In general
(10.) even though
PART IV: READING (25P)
Question 1: Read the following passage carefully and choose the best option to each of the
questions. (7.5p)
1B
2A
3B
4D
5A
6A
7B
8A
9B
10D
11A
12D
13D
14B
15D
Question 1: A. fact
B. return
C. exchange
D. short
Question 2: A. engineers
B. workers
C. electrician
D. trainers
Question 3: A. under
B. performed
C. hold
D. accepted
Question 4: A. demonstrate
B. tell
C. indicate
D. govern
Question 5: A. long
B. far
C. often
D. good
Question 6: A. waste
B. wasting
C. spend
D. spending
Question 7: A. consistently
B. continually
C. constructively
D. chronically
Question 8: A. averse
B. brave
C. impolite
D. intimate
Question 9: A. encouraging
B. correcting
C. scolding
D. criticizing
Question 10: A. reason
B. target
C. task
D. object
Question 11: A. most
B. best
C. bad
D. good
Question 12: A. interest
B. pleasure
C. passion
D. pride
Question 13: A. The other
B. An other
C. Ones
D. Others
Question 14: A. rest
B. relax
C. restrain
D. relieve
Question 15: A. trainees
B. interviewees
C. employers
D. employees
Question 2: Fill in the blank with a suitable word. Use only one word in each space. (7.5p).
1. odds 2. concerned
3. long 4. play 5. its 6. another
7. par 8. reverse
9. tend
10. rise 11. puts
12. sexes 13. on 14. neither
15. term
Question 3: Read the passage then circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the
following questions or statements (10 pts)
1A
2A
3C
4A
5C
6D
7B
8A
9A
10C
Page 4/5


Question 4: From the list of headings below choose the most suitable heading for each
paragraph in the passage and choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage to complete the sentences. (10 pts)
1. ii
2. vi
3. iv
7. a 100 years
4. i
5. ix
6. v
8. mentally confused
9. (well-developed) language
10. an IQ test
PART V: WRITING (30 PTS)
A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. (2.5 points)
1. It’s too wonderful an opportunity for us to miss.
2. Nowhere else am I as practical as you are.
3. It doesn’t take much time for Jack to lose his temper.
4. Thought must be given to ways of improving the transport system.
5. Jane must have been at work today.
B. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in CAPITALS, and so that the
meaning stays the same. (2.5 points)
1. David was instrumental in drafting the proposal.
2. On no account/Not on any account should the house be left unlocked.
3. She passed her final exams with flying colors.
4. His name doesn’t ring a bell with me at all.
5. Theories about the causes of bird flu have changed in the light of recent research
Question 2: Study the chart that shows the participation in social work by men and women of
the country of Fancy from 1992 to 2000 and write a report of about 150 words describing
their contribution (10 pt).
Question 3: Essay writing (15 p)
Teenagers can make their own decisions; older people do not need to make decisions for
them. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer and include
any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
You should write at least 250 words. You are recommended to spend approximately 40
minutes on this task.
Marking scheme
The impression mark given to each of parts 3 and 4 is based on the following scheme:
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level
of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

Page 5/5


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